Can We Find an Elegant Solution For a Less Than Function?

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The discussion centers on the challenge of finding a function g(f(x)) that consistently outputs a value less than f(x). Several approaches are proposed, but many seem inelegant due to the need for specific stipulations. One suggestion is g(x) = x - 1, which guarantees that g(f(x)) is always less than f(x) by one unit. Participants also touch on the importance of analyzing functions' maximum and minimum values to determine the relationship between g(x) and f(x). The conversation highlights the complexity of the problem and the search for a more elegant solution.
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A challenge:

For a function f(x), does there exist a function g(f(x)) such that the outputted function is always less than f(x)?

There are a couple of approaches, but the immediate ones are at first glance quite inelegant requiring stipulations to be introduced. The challenge is to find the most natural solution--the most elegant. Any takers?

Admittedly, there is probably an extremely simple answer that I am overlooking.
 
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g(x) = -2x if x>0, 2x if x<0, -1 if x=0.
 
mmmboh said:
g(x) = -2x if x>0, 2x if x<0, -1 if x=0.

Those pesky, inelegant stipulations I was talking about... :)
 
matthewknight said:
A challenge:

For a function f(x), does there exist a function g(f(x)) such that the outputted function is always less than f(x)?
What comes out is a number, not a function.

If g(x) = x - 1, g(f(x)) will always be less (by 1) than f(x), since g(f(x)) = f(x) - 1.
matthewknight said:
There are a couple of approaches, but the immediate ones are at first glance quite inelegant requiring stipulations to be introduced. The challenge is to find the most natural solution--the most elegant. Any takers?

Admittedly, there is probably an extremely simple answer that I am overlooking.
 
After analyzing the function and knowing their maximum\minimum etc' you can show that
when g(x)>/</=f(x)

This is how you approach this in high school anyway...
 
raam86 said:
After analyzing the function and knowing their maximum\minimum etc' you can show that
when g(x)>/</=f(x)
What does this notation (>/</=) mean?

Is this saying that g(x) > f(x) OR g(x) < f(x) OR g(x) = f(x)?
If so, that doesn't tell us much. The Archimedean Trichotomy says that given any two real numbers a and b, then exactly one of the following must be true.
1. a < b
2. a = b
3. a > b
 
Of course this is true. What I mean is ,assuming this is high school - college level etc', After you know max\min and "up\down domain"*
you will know which function is "over" or under".
let y=x+2 be f(x) and y=ln(x) g(x)
http://www.wolframalpha.com/input/?i=plot+y=ln(x),+y=x+2&asynchronous=false&equal=Submit

It is easy to so that when x>-1.5 f(x)>g(x)

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When doing it by hand you can find the derivatives, x\y 0 coordinates etc'*

*Sorry got a language problem here. Not sure what is the technical term in English.
 
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