Can You Prove That 0! Equals 1?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the mathematical concept of factorial, specifically the case of 0! and its equality to 1. Participants explore definitions and reasoning related to factorials in the context of combinatorial interpretations.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Exploratory

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants question the definition of factorial and its implications for 0!. Some discuss the reasoning behind defining 0! as 1, while others explore combinatorial interpretations and the relationship between factorials and the gamma function.

Discussion Status

There is a variety of perspectives being explored, with some participants providing definitions and justifications for 0! being equal to 1. Others raise questions about the assumptions underlying these definitions, indicating a productive exchange of ideas without a clear consensus.

Contextual Notes

Some participants note that the definition of factorial may not explicitly include 0!, and there is an acknowledgment of the need for rigorous definitions in mathematical contexts.

Natasha1
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I was asked to prove 0! = 1?

Where do I start?

Is this possible? Any hints welcome... :cry:
 
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What is your definition for factorial?

(This is usually something that's included in the definition though sometimes not explicitly)
 
Well 3! is 3x2x1 = 6
2! is 2x1= 2
1! is 1x1 = 1 but 0?? haven't got a clue
 
It's a definition that 0! is 1. If your teacher wishes for elucidation point them to these forums: there are plenty of reasons given in them. At best you can justify why 0!=1 is the most sensible option.
 
You can easily check (using integration by parts), that the following
[tex] n! = \int^\infty_0 dt\, t^n e^{-t} \equiv \Gamma (n+1),[/tex]
is true whenever n is a positive integer 1, 2, 3, etc. This integral is the definition of the so called gamma function [tex]\Gamma (z)[/tex], and I would encourage you to check what I have said thus far. Now, since the gamma function reproduces the standard factorial for integer n, we could equivalently define the factorial to be this integral for integer n. However, this definition is nice because it immediately allows us to define the "factorial" of many more numbers, including zero. Using the definition above, what would [tex]0![/tex] be?

You can also compute [tex]0![/tex] hueristically by using [tex]n! = n(n-1)![/tex], but this way still requires you to somehow extend your definition of factorial in order to be rigorous.

It boils down to a definition any way you slice it.
 
Last edited:
Physics Monkey said:
You can easily check (using integration by parts), that the following
[tex] n! = \int^\infty_0 dt\, t^n e^{-t} \equiv \Gamma (n+1),[/tex]
is true whenever n is a positive integer 1, 2, 3, etc. This integral is the definition of the so called gamma function [tex]\Gamma (z)[/tex], and I would encourage you to check what I have said thus far. Now, since the gamma function reproduces the standard factorial for integer n, we could equivalently define the factorial to be this integral for integer n. However, this definition is nice because it immediately allows us to define the "factorial" of many more numbers, including zero. Using the definition above, what would [tex]0![/tex] be?
You can also compute [tex]0![/tex] hueristically by using [tex]n! = n(n-1)![/tex], but this way still requires you to somehow extend your definition of factorial in order to be rigorous.
It boils down to a definition any way you slice it.

Well, hmmm :rolleyes: . Given that there is an existence/uniqueness theorem for the gamma function, specifically the Bohr-Mollerup Theorem, one might say that the 'only' proper definition of 0! is 1. For the gamma funtion is the only function that interpolates the factorial and that is log-convex for positive arguments, has the functional equation [itex]\Gamma (z+1)=z\Gamma (z)[/itex], and such that [itex]\Gamma (1)=1[/itex]. But who cares about log-convexity anyway? :wink:
 
Factorials represent combinations of a set of objects. so 2 objects can be ordered 2 different ways, 3 objects can be ordered 6 different ways, etc... Matt is right 0! is defined as 1. Maybe you can entertain your teacher with this.

A: x! = (x) (x-1) (x-2) ... (x-(x-2)) (x-(x-1))
B: (x-1)! = (x-1) ((x-1)-1) ((x-1)-2) ... ((x-1)-((x-1)-2)) ((x-1)-(x-2))

B / A = (x-1)! / x! = 1 / x

for x = 1, B / A = 1

B / A = 0! / 1! = 0! / 1
 
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0 objects can be ordered precisely 1 ways

Arman_AAT_Khos said:
Factorials represent combinations of a set of objects. so 2 objects can be ordered 2 different ways, 3 objects can be ordered 6 different ways, etc... Matt is right 0! is defined as 1.

Do you mean: 0 objects can be ordered precisely 1 ways, and hence 0!=1 ?

And it's permutations, not combinations, right?
 
  • #10
Factorial only states the number of ways the entire set (all elements) can be arranged, the different possibilities, or combinations. For instance, if you have three keys in a hat, red=r, green=g, blue=b, there are six ways you can take them out; rgb, rbg, gbr, grb, brg, bgr. The arrangement of the set

Careful not to confuse it with Permutation and Combination, which involve arrangements of elements taken out of the set.

So yes, (ordered or unordered) there is 1 way to order 0 objects.
 

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