Can You Square an Inequality for Sin(x)?

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the manipulation of inequalities involving the sine function, specifically whether it is valid to square the inequality -1 ≤ sin(x) ≤ 1 in the context of a calculus proof using epsilon-delta definitions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants explore the validity of squaring inequalities, particularly questioning the conditions under which this operation is permissible. Some participants highlight that squaring is only valid when all terms are non-negative, while others suggest alternative approaches such as considering the absolute value of sin(x).

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing insights into the conditions for squaring inequalities and exploring different methods to approach the problem. There is a recognition of the limitations of the original inequality manipulation, and some guidance has been offered regarding the use of absolute values.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the constraints of the sine function's range and the implications of squaring negative values in inequalities. The context of an epsilon-delta proof adds a layer of complexity to the discussion.

kahwawashay1
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Hello

I am doing a calculus proof with epsilon-delta and I am trying to say the following:

-1[itex]\leq[/itex]sin x[itex]\leq1[/itex]

and now I want to get (sin x )^2 ...so can you just square all sides of the inequality like this:

(-1)^2[itex]\leq(sin x)^2[/itex][itex]\leq(1)^2[/itex]

??

According to the rule for inequalities, you can do this i think? But obviously sinx squared isn't between 1 and 1?
 
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kahwawashay1 said:
Hello

I am doing a calculus proof with epsilon-delta and I am trying to say the following:

-1[itex]\leq[/itex]sin x[itex]\leq1[/itex]

and now I want to get (sin x )^2 ...so can you just square all sides of the inequality like this:

(-1)^2[itex]\leq(sin x)^2[/itex][itex]\leq(1)^2[/itex]

??

According to the rule for inequalities, you can do this i think? But obviously sinx squared isn't between 1 and 1?

Well, you obviously can't :-)

You can only square an inequality if you know that all the expressions in it are positive.
In this case -1 isn't positive, so...
 
No, you can't do this. The rule

[tex]a\leq b~\Rightarrow~a^2\leq b^2[/tex]

only holds if [itex]a,b\geq 0[/itex].

If both [itex]a,b\leq 0[/itex], then we got the reverse rule

[tex]a\leq b~\Rightarrow b^2\leq a^2[/tex]

If we have [itex]a\leq 0\leq b[/itex] then all sort of things can happen. It's not possible to find a relation between [itex]a^2[/itex] and [itex]b^2[/itex] just like that.
 
Another possible thing to do would be to multiply by [itex]sin(x)[/itex], which is totally viable for [itex]x \in \left[0, \pi\right][/itex].
 
Would squaring the inequality
[tex]0\leq |sin(x)|\leq 1[/tex]
help you?
 
LCKurtz said:
Would squaring the inequality
[tex]0\leq |sin(x)|\leq 1[/tex]
help you?

Yup this helps thx!
 

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