- #1
sponteous
- 17
- 4
In chapter 44 of Feynman Lectures on Physics, Volume I, which covers thermodynamics, we find this passage:
Does anyone know what this argument of Carnot's is? I'm not sure exactly what it is that he is supposed to have derived without using the first law. The efficiency of a reversible engine? Feynman doesn't say explicitly. Anyway, I'm very interested to know how Carnot did this without having to use the fact that
Qhot-Qcold = Work done
p 44-2 said:At the time when Carnot lived, the first law of thermodynamics, the conservation of energy, was not known. Carnot's arguments were so carefully drawn, however, that they are valid even though the first law was not known in his time! Some time afterwards, Clausius made a simper derivation that could be understood more easily than Carnot's very subtle reasoning. But it turned out that Clausius assumed, not the conservation of energy in general, but that heat was conserved according to the caloric theory, which was later shown to be false. So it has often been said that Carnot's logic was wrong. But his logic was quite correct. Only Clausius' simplified version, that everybody read, was incorrect.
The so-called second law of thermodynamics was thus discovered by Carnot before the first law! It would be interesting to give Carnot's argument that did not use the first law, but we shall not do so because we want to learn physics, not history. We shall use the first law from the start, in spite of the fact that a great deal can be done without it.
Does anyone know what this argument of Carnot's is? I'm not sure exactly what it is that he is supposed to have derived without using the first law. The efficiency of a reversible engine? Feynman doesn't say explicitly. Anyway, I'm very interested to know how Carnot did this without having to use the fact that
Qhot-Qcold = Work done