Changing the basis of Pauli spin matrices

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves finding the matrix representation of the S_z operator in the S_x basis for a spin-1/2 system, utilizing the Pauli matrices and their respective kets in different bases.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to equate the S_z operator in the S_x basis with the S_x operator in the S_z basis, expressing confusion about the validity of this approach. They also consider using eigenvalue equations and vector representations of kets in the S_x basis.
  • Some participants suggest finding the matrix elements involving the eigenvectors of S_x to derive the S_z matrix representation.

Discussion Status

Participants are exploring different methods to approach the problem, with some guidance provided on focusing on matrix elements. There is recognition of the complexity of quantum mechanical problem-solving, indicating a productive exchange of ideas without a clear consensus on a single method.

Contextual Notes

There is mention of the challenge in applying intuition from other areas of physics to quantum mechanics, highlighting the unique nature of the problem-solving process in this context.

Phruizler
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Homework Statement



Find the matrix representation of S_z in the S_x basis for spin 1/2.

Homework Equations



I have the Pauli matrices, and I also have the respective kets derived in each basis. There aren't really any relevant equations, other than the eigenvalue equations for the operators.

The Attempt at a Solution



In the S_x basis, the S_x operator is just

<br /> \frac{\hbar}{2}<br /> \begin{pmatrix}<br /> 1 &amp; 0\\ <br /> 0 &amp; -1<br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />

So isn't the S_z operator in the S_x basis just equal to the S_x operator in the S_z basis? That is,

<br /> S_z=<br /> \frac{\hbar}{2}<br /> \begin{pmatrix}<br /> 0 &amp; 1\\ <br /> 1 &amp; 0<br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />

in the S_x basis? If so, I don't really understand how to show this in any meaningful way... I've also tried solving the eigenvalue equations for S_z and converting the kets to the S_x basis but that just lead me in circles. I can see that the question is a very basic one but something is just not letting me get a satisfactory answer. Any help would be much appreciated, thanks!
 
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After some thought, I've considered that maybe I can just use the vector representation of S_z kets in the S_x basis. That is,

<br /> |+&gt;_x<br /> \doteq<br /> \begin{pmatrix}<br /> 1\\<br /> 0<br /> \end{pmatrix}<br />

in the S_x basis, and the same for the spin down ket, so I can just plug these vector representations into the eigenvalue equation and solve for the S_z matrix. This will indeed give me the matrix which I asked about above (namely, the same as the S_x the S_z basis). I'm going to assume this is correct unless anyone tells me otherwise!
 
Phruizler - to find the required matrix, you just have to find the four matrix elements involving the eigenvectors of S_x.

That is, you need to find \langle x,\pm \lvert S_z \lvert x,\pm \rangle.
 
Thanks! This yields the answer I got doing it the above way but is much more satisfying. I didn't even think of solving the matrix elements individually like that for some reason. Quantum mechanical problem solving simply doesn't adhere to the same intuition as other problems in physics. I can tell it will be a while before I will have useful insight into even some of the easier problems!

Thanks again!
 

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