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Clarification of spinor solutions in Srednicki

  1. Feb 16, 2016 #1
    On page 235 of srednicki (print) it says to plug a solution of the form $$ \textbf{$\Psi$} (x) = u(\textbf{p})e^{ipx} + v(\textbf{p})e^{-ipx}$$ into the dirac equation $$ (-i\gamma^{\mu} \partial_{\mu}+m)\textbf{$\Psi$}=0 $$

    To get

    $$(p_{\mu}\gamma^{\mu} + m)u(\textbf{p})e^{ipx} + (-p_{\mu}\gamma^{\mu} + m)v(\textbf{p})e^{-ipx} = 0 $$

    I'm wondering what the reasoning for this term is (not wrt negative or positive but simply why p) $$p_{\mu}\gamma^{\mu}$$
     
  2. jcsd
  3. Feb 16, 2016 #2

    Orodruin

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    Did you try just plugging it into the Dirac equation? What did you get?
     
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