Classify the group Z4xZ2/0xZ2 using fund.thm. of finetely gen. abl. grps.

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SUMMARY

The group Z4xZ2/{0}xZ2 is classified using the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups (FTOFGAG), which states that every finitely generated abelian group is isomorphic to a direct product of cyclic groups. The projection map pi: Z4xZ2→Z4 is established as a homomorphism, with {0}xZ2 identified as its kernel. Consequently, the canonical map Pi: Z4xZ2/{0}xZ2→Z4 demonstrates that Z4xZ2/{0}xZ2 is isomorphic to Z4, confirming the application of the theorem in this context.

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  • Understanding of the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups (FTOFGAG)
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  • Familiarity with projection maps in mathematical contexts
  • Basic concepts of cyclic groups and isomorphisms
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  • Explore the implications of the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups
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Mathematics students, particularly those studying abstract algebra, group theory, and anyone interested in the classification of finitely generated abelian groups.

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Homework Statement



Clasify the group Z4xZ2/{0}xZ2 using the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups.


Homework Equations


FTOFGAG: In short it states that every finitely generated abelian group G is isomorphic to a direct product of cyclic groups of the form Z(p1)r1x...xZ(pn)rnxZxZ...xZ

where pn's are prime numbers and rn's are +ve integers (p's,r's can be same)

Theorem 14.11 is just the fundamental theorem of homomorphism.

The Attempt at a Solution



As given in the book
SolAB.jpg


First time (at least from what I remember, and my memory span is that of a worm...) I encounter a projection map. But the main thing is, that I do not see how the theorem was applied ? I think I can justify to myself why pi(x,y) only gives x - otherwise, it would not be possible to make it isomorphic to Z4 (I mean it would not make any sense to map Z4xZ2 to only Z4), but why do we make such a choice in the first place ? And why can we say that {0}xZ2 is the kernel ?
 
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{0}xZ2 is the kernel of pi because pi(0xz2)=0 for any z2 in Z2. It can be shown that pi: Z4xZ2→Z4 is a homomorphism, therefore the canonical map Pi: Z4xZ2/{0}xZ2→Z4 is isomorphism, so Z4xZ2/{0}xZ2 and Z4 are isomorphic. I don't see why you need the theorem about finite abelian group, maybe this is just an example of that theorem.
 
Thanks sunjin09!
So it is all about how we define pi.
 

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