Subgroup of Finitely Generated Abelian Group

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Homework Help Overview

The problem involves proving that any subgroup of a finitely generated abelian group is also finitely generated. The discussion centers around group theory, specifically the properties of abelian groups and their subgroups.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts a proof by induction on the number of generators, starting with the case of cyclic groups. They explore the use of the correspondence theorem in their reasoning.
  • Some participants suggest proving a general result related to finitely generated subgroups and their quotient groups, questioning the implications of such results on the original problem.
  • Others express uncertainty about the direction of their proof and seek hints for further progress.

Discussion Status

The discussion includes various approaches to the problem, with some participants providing guidance on related general results that may assist in the proof. There is an ongoing exploration of different lines of reasoning without a clear consensus on the best path forward.

Contextual Notes

Participants note challenges in assuming certain elements belong to specific groups, indicating potential gaps in information or assumptions that need clarification.

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Homework Statement


Prove that any subgroup of a finitely generated abelian group is finitely generated.

Homework Equations




The Attempt at a Solution


I've attempted a proof by induction on the number of generators. The case n=1 corresponds to a cyclic group, and any subgroup of a cyclic group is cyclic, and so generated by one element. Then for the inductive step, I supposed that G was finitely generated, say G = \mathbb{Z} a_{1} + ... + \mathbb{Z} a_{n}, and that the result holds for groups generated by fewer than n elements. I've then let H \le G, and considered the quotient group G/\mathbb{Z}a_{n}, and then hoped that the correspondence theorem would help me out, but so far I can't seem to make it work.

Am I even attacking this problem correctly?
 
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Try to prove the following general result, it might help:

Let H be an abelian group. If there exists a finitely generated subgroup K of H such that H/K is finitely generated, then H is finitely generated.
 
micromass said:
Try to prove the following general result, it might help:

Let H be an abelian group. If there exists a finitely generated subgroup K of H such that H/K is finitely generated, then H is finitely generated.

Does this work?

Let K \le H be finitely generated where H/K is finitely generated, say K = \mathbb{Z}a_{1} + ... + \mathbb{Z}a_{n} and H/K = \mathbb{Z}(b_{1} + K) + ... + \mathbb{Z}(b_{m} + K) = \mathbb{Z}b_{1} + ... + \mathbb{Z}b_{m} + K, where the b_{i} \in H. Let h \in H, and consider h + K \in H/K. Then h + K = y_{1}b_{1} + ... + y_{m}b_{m} for some y_{i} \in \mathbb{Z}, so y_{1}b_{1} + ... + y_{m}b_{m} - h \in K. But then y_{1}b_{1} + ... + y_{m}b_{m} - h = z_{1}a_{1} + ... + z_{n}a_{n} for some z_{i} \in \mathbb{Z}, and so h = y_{1}b_{1} + ... + y_{m}b_{m} - z_{1}a_{1} - ... - z_{n}a_{n}. Thus, H is finitely generated.
 
Yes, that works!
 
Sorry, I'm going to have to ask for a hint as to where to go from there. My ideas for proofs tend to break down when I want to assume a_{i} \in H for some a_{i}when G = \mathbb{Z}a_{1} + ... + \mathbb{Z}a_{n}.
 

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