cianfa72
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At the beginning of this thread we talked about 'stationary' congruence like the Langevin congruence in Minkowski spacetime. Langevin congruence is defined as stationary just because its worldlines are integral orbits of a timelike Killing vector field (KVF).
If the above is correct then, by definition, given a spacetime the existence of at least one stationary congruence suffices to define it as a stationary spacetime, right ?
If the above is correct then, by definition, given a spacetime the existence of at least one stationary congruence suffices to define it as a stationary spacetime, right ?
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