Comparing f(b) - f(a) to f(x) - f(a)

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The discussion centers on the application of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem, specifically examining the relationships between the equations f(b) - f(a) = f'(c)(b - a) and f(b) - f(a) = (f(x) - f(a))/(x - a)(b - a) for some unknown x. Participants clarify that while the first equation is valid under the theorem, the second requires additional conditions on the function f to hold true. The consensus is that the two equations do not represent the same concept without imposing further constraints on the function.

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[tex]f(b) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ f'(c)(b \ - \ a)[/tex]

I'm just wondering can we write

[tex]f(b) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ \frac{f(x) \ - \ f(a)}{x \ - \ a} (b \ - \ a)[/tex]

for some unknown x &

[tex]f(x) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ \frac{f(b) \ - \ f(a)}{b \ - \ a} (x \ - \ a)[/tex]

I mean, are these the same thing for a specific x?I need to know this before I write the proof of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem to check
whether I've done it right, please let me know :smile:
 
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sponsoredwalk said:
[tex]f(b) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ f'(c)(b \ - \ a)[/tex]

I'm just wondering can we write

[tex]f(b) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ \frac{f(x) \ - \ f(a)}{x \ - \ a} (b \ - \ a)[/tex]

for some unknown x &

[tex]f(x) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ \frac{f(b) \ - \ f(a)}{b \ - \ a} (x \ - \ a)[/tex]

I mean, are these the same thing for a specific x?


I need to know this before I write the proof of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem to check
whether I've done it right, please let me know :smile:

Since I don't know the content of your proof, I can't comment on that, but assuming the mean value theorem, we know that there is a [tex]c\in (a,b)[/tex] such that the first equation is true and there is a [tex]d\in (a,x)[/tex] such that

[tex]f'(d) = \frac{f(x) \ - \ f(a)}{x \ - \ a} .[/tex]

However it seems like we would need to impose further conditions on f in order that [tex]d\in (a,b)[/tex], so the second equation that you write does not follow from the mean value theorem. I can't see that these equations would help you prove the mean value theorem.
 
Well I was just thinking about it, would they represent the same thing.

Here, here & here the proof's all give you a complicated looking formula and tell you that
this will prove everything, but where did it come from? I tried to derive it here so please
let me know if I've assumed anything :smile:

[tex]1) \ F(x) \rightarrow \ f(b) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ \frac{f(x) \ - \ f(a)}{x \ - \ a}(b \ - \ a)[/tex]

[tex]2) \ G(x) \rightarrow \ g(b) \ - \ g(a) \ = \ \frac{g(x) \ - \ g(a)}{x \ - \ a}(b \ - \ a)[/tex]

[tex]3) \ \frac{F(x)}{G(x)} \rightarrow \ \frac{f(b) \ - \ f(a)}{g(b) \ - \ g(a)} \ = \ \frac{f(x) \ - \ f(a)}{g(x) \ - \ g(a)}[/tex]


[tex]4) [ \ f(b) \ - \ f(a) \ ] \ \cdot \ [ \ g(x) \ - \ g(a) \ ] \ ] \ = \ [ \ f(x) \ - \ f(a) \ ] \ \cdot \ [ \ g(b) \ - \ g(a) \ ][/tex]


[tex]5) H(x) \ \rightarrow \ [ \ f(b) \ - \ f(a) \ ] \ \cdot \ [ \ g(x) \ - \ g(a) \ ] \ ] \ - \ [ \ f(x) \ - \ f(a) \ ] \ \cdot \ [ \ g(b) \ - \ g(a) \ ] \ = \ C[/tex]


[tex]6) \ H ' (x) \ \rightarrow \ [ f(b) \ - \ f(a) ] g'(x) \ - \ f'(x)[ \ g(b) \ - \ g(a)] \ = \ 0[/tex]


[tex]7) \ H ' (c) \ \rightarrow \ [ f(b) \ - \ f(a) ] g'(c) \ - \ f'(c)[ \ g(b) \ - \ g(a)] \ = \ 0[/tex]

[tex]8) \ [ f(b) \ - \ f(a) ] g'(c) \ = \ f'(c)[ g(b) \ - \ g(a)][/tex]

[tex]9) \ \frac{f(b) \ - \ f(a)}{g(b) \ - \ g(a)} \ = \ \frac{f'(c)}{g'(c)}[/tex]

It seems a bit strange to write the first and second equations with x seeing as it
can only be b in order to have equality, unless I'm mistaken.
 

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