- #1

sponsoredwalk

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I'm just wondering can we write

[tex]f(b) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ \frac{f(x) \ - \ f(a)}{x \ - \ a} (b \ - \ a) [/tex]

for some unknown x &

[tex]f(x) \ - \ f(a) \ = \ \frac{f(b) \ - \ f(a)}{b \ - \ a} (x \ - \ a) [/tex]

I mean, are these the same thing for a specific x?I need to know this before I write the proof of Cauchy's Mean Value Theorem to check

whether I've done it right, please let me know