Complex conjugation equality problem

  • Thread starter Thread starter eljose
  • Start date Start date
  • Tags Tags
    Complex
Click For Summary
SUMMARY

The discussion centers on the equality involving complex conjugation, specifically the equation \(\int_{0}^{c}dxf(x)g(x)=\int_{0}^{c}dxf(x)[g(x)]*\). It is established that for this equality to hold, it necessitates that \(\int_{0}^{c}f(x)v(x) dx=0\), where \(g(x)=u(x)+iv(x)\) and \(v(x)\) represents the imaginary part of \(g(x)\). The conclusion drawn is that \(g(x)\) must be real-valued, or zero for all but a finite number of points, to satisfy the equality, highlighting the triviality of finding counterexamples to this assertion.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of complex functions and their conjugates
  • Familiarity with real-valued functions and integrals
  • Knowledge of the properties of integrals involving complex variables
  • Basic concepts of imaginary numbers and their implications in mathematical proofs
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of complex conjugation in detail
  • Explore the implications of integrals of complex functions in real analysis
  • Investigate counterexamples in complex analysis to understand the limitations of proofs
  • Learn about the conditions under which integrals of imaginary parts yield zero
USEFUL FOR

Mathematicians, students of complex analysis, and anyone interested in the rigorous proofs involving complex functions and integrals.

eljose
Messages
484
Reaction score
0
:rolleyes: let be the equality where "*" is complex conjugation...z=a+ib but z*=a-ib with a and b real, then:

[tex]\int_{0}^{c}dxf(x)g(x)=\int_{0}^{c}dxf(x)[g(x)]*[/tex]

with c a real number then my question is if the equality above implies necessarily that:

[tex]g(x)=[g(x)]*[/tex] so g is real where:

-f(x)>0 or 0 on the interval (0,c) and f is a real-valued function.
-c is an arbitrary and positive real number.
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Let [tex]g(x)=u(x)+iv(x)[/tex] so that [tex][g(x)]*=u(x)-iv(x)[/tex]. The equality then becomes

[tex]\int_{0}^{c}f(x)(u(x)+iv(x)) dx=\int_{0}^{c}f(x)(u(x)-iv(x)) dx \\ \Rightarrow \int_{0}^{c}f(x)u(x) dx+i\int_{0}^{c}f(x)v(x) dx = \int_{0}^{c}f(x)u(x) dx-i\int_{0}^{c}f(x)v(x) dx \Rightarrow i\int_{0}^{c}f(x)v(x) dx = -i\int_{0}^{c}f(x)v(x) dx \Rightarrow 2i\int_{0}^{c}f(x)v(x) dx=0[/tex]

so we require that [tex]\int_{0}^{c}f(x)v(x) dx=0[/tex] for said equality to hold, in terms of g(x) this is [tex]\int_{0}^{c}f(x)\Im [g(x)] dx=0[/tex]

which could hold for any number of different functions f and g.
 
As stated it is exceptionally trivial to find counter examples and benorin was being far to rigorous in proving something here. g=0 for all but some finite number of points where it is i will do. And you wonder why people don't trust your non-rigorous 'proofs'?
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 5 ·
Replies
5
Views
2K
  • · Replies 17 ·
Replies
17
Views
4K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
4K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
Replies
2
Views
2K
Replies
6
Views
3K
  • · Replies 14 ·
Replies
14
Views
3K
Replies
3
Views
2K
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
1K