I Compton effect: how can it take place?

[PeterDonis]

E.g.:
http://file.scirp.org/Html/9-7501694_45033.htm

This paper is correct that you cannot consistently set all three of $c$, $h$, and $G$ to 1; you have to either set $c = G = 1$ (as is done in GR), or $c = h = 1$ (as is done in QFT).

What the paper does not do is support its claim that there is a "considerable body of work in theoretical physics" that does in fact claim to set $c = h = G = 1$, all three at the same time. I've never seen this done. None of the GR textbooks or papers I've seen set $h = 1$ (most of them don't use any equations where $h$ appears at all; the ones that do don't set it to 1). None of the QFT textbooks or papers I've seen set $G = 1$ (most of them talk explicitly about the fact that you can't set $G = 1$ in the context of QFT, you have to give it its proper units in the "natural" units of QFT, which are inverse mass squared).

 

[PeterDonis]

It seems anyhow, their size can be sometimes calculated.

The paper you link to does not appear to be peer-reviewed, and at least some of the things it says, on a quick skim, appear to contradict established theory. I would be very cautious about trying to draw conclusions from it.

The fact that there is no valid position operator for photons is a standard result in QFT.

Do I have to repeat, again, that you should be looking at textbooks? Particularly before you try to wade into advanced technical papers?

 

[PeterDonis]

I just would like to grasp a fundamental meaning, let's say a barycentric role.
It seems, there isn't any.

If you take the time to learn the standard theory from textbooks, you will be able to answer this for yourself. At this point, there's nothing more that can usefully be said here.

This thread is closed.