- #1

CheeseSandwich

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I understand that in Cartesian coordinates there is exactly one set of coordinates for any given point. However, in polar coordinates there is an infinite number of coordinates for a given point. I see how they are derived visually in the diagram below, and I see how the coordinates are derived by the expressions below.

Here are my questions:

- I see how infinite coordinates can be derived, but
*why*can there be infinite coordinates for one point? - How can a point in the first quadrant be equivalent to a point in the third quadrant?
- Why can't we represent the point (5, π/3) in the second or fourth quadrants? Why does
*n*have to be an integer and not a rational number?

Thanks!

CheeseSandwich