According to Carnot's theorem η≥η' where η corresponds to a reversible machine and η' is not necessarily reversible, so far so good, the problem is that it is ussually assumed that when η' is irreversible the inequality must hold however a could not find a rigorous demostration of this within the context of classical phenomenological thermodynamics, can anyone tell if such a demostration exists and where I can find it?(obs: η is the machine efficiency)(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

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# Conceptual thermodynamics question

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