- #1
FranzDiCoccio
- 342
- 41
Hi,
I have some doubts and questions about the above thermodynamic cycles. These questions arise from some statements I find in a couple of textbooks: "Physics, 10th edition" by Cutnell et al [A], and the other is "Fundamentals of Physics" by Halliday and Resnick . Actually, I have the versions of these books for Italian high schools. The quoted sentences are my translations of what I read.
In [A] I read that "a Carnot engine is a reversible thermal engine that operates between two heat reservoirs only".
Also, as a part of Carnot's theorem, "all reversible engines that operate between the same two temperatures have the same efficiency".
Then I thought about the (idealized) Stirling cycle (isothermal, isochoric, isothermal, isochoric) and started wondering what's the difference.
I mean, at first it seemed to me that the (idealized) Stirling engine operates between two heat reservoirs only, like the Carnot engine.
Therefore, if I get the second statement above right, a Stirling engine and a Carnot engine operating between the same two reservoirs should have the same efficiency.
Then I took a look into , which maintains that, in order to be reversible, the isochoric processes needs a variable-temperature reservoir that gradually changes the temperature at constant volume.
Thus one cannot say that there are only two reservoirs.
Also, says that from this it follows that "the efficiency of an idealized Stirling engine is necessarily lower than that of a Carnot engine operating between the same two temperatures".
While I agree with the need of more than two reservoirs, I fail to see the implication that the efficiency is lower.
The statement about the reversibility and the variable-temperature reservoir seemed kind of strange to me, especially after seeing that the "cartoon" representation of the Stirling engine in this wikipedia page does not seem to involve a variable temperature reservoir. The substance is put into thermal contact with one reservoir (e.g. the hottest) and after a while reaches thermal equilibrium at the temperature of the reservoir.Somewhere else I read that "operates between two reservoirs only" does not really mean what it seems to mean, i.e. that there are only two heat reservoirs. It rather means that the heat exchange happens at two temperatures only. Since this means that there are two isothermal and two adiabatic processes, it necessarily implies a Carnot engine. Hence a Stirling neither of the above Stirling engines (reversible and irreversible) operates between two reservoirs (or better between two temperatures).
Can I say the following?
Thanks a lot for your help.
Franz
I have some doubts and questions about the above thermodynamic cycles. These questions arise from some statements I find in a couple of textbooks: "Physics, 10th edition" by Cutnell et al [A], and the other is "Fundamentals of Physics" by Halliday and Resnick . Actually, I have the versions of these books for Italian high schools. The quoted sentences are my translations of what I read.
In [A] I read that "a Carnot engine is a reversible thermal engine that operates between two heat reservoirs only".
Also, as a part of Carnot's theorem, "all reversible engines that operate between the same two temperatures have the same efficiency".
Then I thought about the (idealized) Stirling cycle (isothermal, isochoric, isothermal, isochoric) and started wondering what's the difference.
I mean, at first it seemed to me that the (idealized) Stirling engine operates between two heat reservoirs only, like the Carnot engine.
Therefore, if I get the second statement above right, a Stirling engine and a Carnot engine operating between the same two reservoirs should have the same efficiency.
Then I took a look into , which maintains that, in order to be reversible, the isochoric processes needs a variable-temperature reservoir that gradually changes the temperature at constant volume.
Thus one cannot say that there are only two reservoirs.
Also, says that from this it follows that "the efficiency of an idealized Stirling engine is necessarily lower than that of a Carnot engine operating between the same two temperatures".
While I agree with the need of more than two reservoirs, I fail to see the implication that the efficiency is lower.
The statement about the reversibility and the variable-temperature reservoir seemed kind of strange to me, especially after seeing that the "cartoon" representation of the Stirling engine in this wikipedia page does not seem to involve a variable temperature reservoir. The substance is put into thermal contact with one reservoir (e.g. the hottest) and after a while reaches thermal equilibrium at the temperature of the reservoir.Somewhere else I read that "operates between two reservoirs only" does not really mean what it seems to mean, i.e. that there are only two heat reservoirs. It rather means that the heat exchange happens at two temperatures only. Since this means that there are two isothermal and two adiabatic processes, it necessarily implies a Carnot engine. Hence a Stirling neither of the above Stirling engines (reversible and irreversible) operates between two reservoirs (or better between two temperatures).
Can I say the following?
- the reversible version clearly needs more than two reservoirs/temperatures, and hence (?) it has a lower efficiency than the Carnot engine.
- the irreversible version may (or may not) operate between two temperatures only, but it has a lower efficiency than the Carnot engine, simply because it is irreversible.
Thanks a lot for your help.
Franz