Conducting rod through a magnetic field

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on a conducting rod moving at a constant speed v through a uniform vertical magnetic field with flux density B. Despite the application of a mechanical force F, the rod maintains constant velocity due to the induced electromotive force (emf) and the magnetic force acting in the opposite direction, as described by Fleming's left-hand rule. This situation exemplifies the equilibrium condition where the mechanical force equals the magnetic force, resulting in no net acceleration according to Newton's laws of motion.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of electromagnetic induction and Faraday's law
  • Familiarity with Fleming's left-hand rule
  • Basic knowledge of Newton's laws of motion
  • Concept of magnetic flux density (B)
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the principles of electromagnetic induction in detail
  • Explore applications of Fleming's left-hand rule in electrical engineering
  • Investigate the relationship between force, magnetic fields, and motion
  • Learn about the effects of changing magnetic fields on induced currents
USEFUL FOR

Physics students, electrical engineers, and anyone interested in the principles of electromagnetism and motion in magnetic fields.

thereddevils
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There is this conducting rod being moved to the right a constant speed v by a mechanical force F along 2 parallel , smooth, and horizontal conductors in a uniform vertical magnetic field of flux density B.

The question is why is the speed constant although its being moved by a force ,F.

Well let me answer that first :

Since the conducting rod is being moved through a magnetic field , there is a change in the magnetic flux , hence an emf/current is being induced in the conductor. Now , from Fleming's left hand rule , there exist a magnetic force acting in opposite direction as the mechanical force but are of the same magnitude since the rod moves in Constant velocity.

Another thought came to me , since F=Fm , the conducting rod should be in equalibrium and shouldn't be moving so how did it move with constant velocity according to the question?
 
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Remember Newton's First and Second Laws:

\Sigma \vec F = \frac{d\vec p}{dt}

If \frac{d\vec p}{dt}=0, what does that tell us about the momentum, \vec p=m\vec v ? Does it mean that the velocity is 0, or something else?
 

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