- #1

kelly0303

- 486

- 28

where ##v_0(k,r)## is the ##l=0## partial wave solution to the Schrodinger equation without any potential, while ##u_0(k,r)## is the ##l=0## partial wave solution to the Schrodinger equation with a spherically symmetric, localized potential. I am not sure I understand why they are equal. On the contrary, the whole 2 parts of the appendix before, talked about how, as ##r \to \infty##, in the case with a potential the wavefunction gathers a phase shift relative to the case without. Basically, for the case without a potential, ##\delta_0=0##. Yet now that phase is not zero for the case without potential, too. I guess I am miss understaning something. Can someone clarify this for me please? Thank you!