Confusion about definition of a splitting field

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The discussion centers on confusion regarding the definition of a splitting field and its implications for irreducible polynomials. The user is tasked with showing that if a polynomial f(x) is separable, then the degree n divides the order of the Galois group Gal(E/F). They present an example involving the polynomial (x^2 + 1)^2, which leads to a misunderstanding about separability and irreducibility. A mentor clarifies that (x^2 + 1)^2 is not irreducible and thus not separable, addressing the user's concern about the division of degrees. The conversation highlights the importance of distinguishing between irreducible and separable polynomials in Galois theory.
issam el mariami
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TL;DR Summary: Confision about definition of a splitting field

I have an exercise that tells me to show that if ##F##is a field and ##f(x)## is a polynomial over F which irreducible of degree n and ##E/F## is a splitting field of ##f(x)## then n divides ##[E:F]##, DONE!

The second part is what bothers me, it says: now suppose ##f(x)## is separable, show that n divides the order of ##Gal(E/F)##. See exercise 78, J Rotman - Galois Theory (Universitext), second edition. Now from the theorem 56 (of the same book) I can tell that ##|Gal(E/F)|=[E:F]##, nice!!!.

Now, for sure I need to apply part one of the exercise, so here how it goes: from the definition of a separable polynomial we know that (stik right now for just the case of two factors, because the general case cane be done by induction) ##f(x)= a f_1(x) f_2(x)## where a is an element of F and the two foregoing polynomials are irreducible (NOT NECESSARILY DISTINCT) and EACH one of them has no repeated roots.

But, then It cames to my mind that ##|\mathbb{C}: \mathbb{R}|=2##, and ##(x^2+1)(x^2+1)## is separable over ##\mathbb{R}## with degree four, But ##x^2+1## (itself!) is separable so by the same theorem ##|Gal(\mathbb{C}:\mathbb{R})|=2## But four does not divide two. Could someone please tell me where I messed up, and if I'm right about using induction to resolve the problem (so ##deg(f_1(x))deg(f_2(x))=deg(f(x)##) divides ##[E:F]##).

[LaTeX edited by a Mentor]
 
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##(x^2+1)^2## isn't irreducible and therefore not separable.
 
First, I tried to show that ##f_n## converges uniformly on ##[0,2\pi]##, which is true since ##f_n \rightarrow 0## for ##n \rightarrow \infty## and ##\sigma_n=\mathrm{sup}\left| \frac{\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x\right)}{n^{x^2-3x+3}} \right| \leq \frac{1}{|n^{x^2-3x+3}|} \leq \frac{1}{n^{\frac 34}}\rightarrow 0##. I can't use neither Leibnitz's test nor Abel's test. For Dirichlet's test I would need to show, that ##\sin\left(\frac{n^2}{n+\frac 15}x \right)## has partialy bounded sums...