Confusion about solution to contour integral w/ branch pt.

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around understanding a contour integral involving the function (log(z))^2/(1+z^2) from 0 to infinity, particularly focusing on the implications of branch points and cuts for multivalued functions.

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to understand the choice of branch cut along the negative real axis and questions the reasoning behind it. They also inquire about the addition of i*pi in the integral from infinity to 0, expressing confusion about the behavior of the logarithm across the branch point. Other participants raise concerns about the limits of integration when changing variables and suggest that there may be a typo in the provided solution.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants exploring various interpretations of the contour integral and questioning the logic behind specific steps in the solution. Some guidance has been offered regarding the behavior of the logarithm along different paths, but no consensus has been reached on the overall understanding of the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants are grappling with the implications of branch points and the behavior of multivalued functions in the context of contour integration. There is mention of a potential typo in the solution, which may affect the interpretation of the integral limits.

outhsakotad
Messages
31
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement


I am reading the solution the integral of (log(z))^2/(1+z^2) from 0 to infinity in a textbook, and I'm not sure I quite understand it, and I think this misunderstanding stems from my difficulty w/ branch points/cuts for multivalued functions.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution

I've attached the solution. They appear to have drawn a contour that is a large semicircle in the UHP, avoiding the branch point at z=0 and have chosen a branch cut along the negative real axis. I have a couple questions here:

(1) The choice of branch cut seems to be by convenience, but I don't understand the logic behind the choice of the negative real axis.

(2) Why in the integral from infinity to 0 (see line above line 13.1) do they add i*pi? This makes somewhat sense to me as at the beginning (integral from 0 to infinity), you have r*e^(i*0), whose ln is ln(r), and at the line (infinity to 0) you have r*e^(i*pi), whose ln is ln(r)+i*pi... But I thought that the value didn't change until you crossed the branch point? At least, that is the way it would be if you had drawn "keyhole" contour. Any help?
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Here it is. Sorry. Also, when they change back to x in line 13.1, why can they just change the limits of integration like that? I see that you cannot have the log of a negative number, but why shouldn't the limits on the second and third integrals in this line be from infinity to 0?
 

Attachments

Last edited:
I think there is a typo in the line above 13.1. It should be:

[tex]\int_0^{\infty} \frac{\ln^2 r}{1+r^2}+\int_0^{\infty} \frac{(\ln(r)+\pi i)^2}{1+r^2} dr[/tex]

but then the following line corrects it.

Also, the need for pi i is that along the negative real axis, we let [itex]z=re^{\pi i}[/itex] right? And along the positive axis, it's just [itex]z=re^{0\pi i}[/itex]
 
Last edited:
Okay, but their limits sort of make sense: Along the negative axis, you are integrating from r=infinity to 0. So what they have makes sense to me until they change to x.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
Replies
8
Views
3K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K
  • · Replies 11 ·
Replies
11
Views
4K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
3K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
2K