Insights Blog
-- Browse All Articles --
Physics Articles
Physics Tutorials
Physics Guides
Physics FAQ
Math Articles
Math Tutorials
Math Guides
Math FAQ
Education Articles
Education Guides
Bio/Chem Articles
Technology Guides
Computer Science Tutorials
Forums
Classical Physics
Quantum Physics
Quantum Interpretations
Special and General Relativity
Atomic and Condensed Matter
Nuclear and Particle Physics
Beyond the Standard Model
Cosmology
Astronomy and Astrophysics
Other Physics Topics
Trending
Featured Threads
Log in
Register
What's new
Search
Search
Search titles only
By:
Classical Physics
Quantum Physics
Quantum Interpretations
Special and General Relativity
Atomic and Condensed Matter
Nuclear and Particle Physics
Beyond the Standard Model
Cosmology
Astronomy and Astrophysics
Other Physics Topics
Menu
Log in
Register
Navigation
More options
Contact us
Close Menu
JavaScript is disabled. For a better experience, please enable JavaScript in your browser before proceeding.
You are using an out of date browser. It may not display this or other websites correctly.
You should upgrade or use an
alternative browser
.
Forums
Physics
Classical Physics
Confusion regarding the coefficient of restitution
Reply to thread
Message
[QUOTE="parsesnip, post: 6076124, member: 651649"] I learned that there are two different definitions for the coefficient of restitution: e = final relative velocity / initial relative velocity and e = √(final KE/initial KE). However, I don't understand how these two definitions will always give the same value. If one particle with mass m moving with velocity v has a perfectly inelastic collision with another particle of mass m at rest, then both will move together with the velocity v/2. According to the first definition, e = 0 as the final relative velocity is 0. However, according to the second definition, e = √((1/2(2m)(v/2)[SUP]2[/SUP])/(1/2mv^2)) which is 1/√2. Also, Wikipedia says that "A perfectly inelastic collision has a coefficient of 0, but a 0 value does not have to be perfectly inelastic.". Can someone give me an example of a collision with a coefficient of 0 that is not perfectly inelastic? I thought that was the definition of perfect inelasticity. Also shouldn't the first definition use relative speed instead of relative velocity? For example, if a particle of mass m hits a wall with velocity v, it will rebound with velocity -v, so according to this definition e should be -1. [/QUOTE]
Insert quotes…
Post reply
Forums
Physics
Classical Physics
Confusion regarding the coefficient of restitution
Back
Top