Conjugation of a permutation by a permutation in a permutation group

[karnten07]

Homework Statement

Let n \geq1. Let <a1,...,as> \inSn be a cycle and let \sigma\inSn be arbitrary. Show that

\sigma\circ <a1,...,as> \circ\sigma^{-1} = <\sigma(a1),...,\sigma(as)> in Sn.

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution

As the title says, i believe this is a theorem regarding that the inverse permutation is the effect of a conjugation of a permutation by a permutation in a permutation group. Does anyone know a proof for this or where to find one?

 

[morphism]

That's pretty hard to read. It's usually better if you put adjacent things in one tag instead of several.

 

[karnten07]

That's pretty hard to read. It's usually better if you put adjacent things in one tag instead of several.

<br /> <br /> Im sorry, here it is written in wikipedia simpler:<br /> <br /> One theorem regarding the inverse permutation is the effect of a conjugation of a permutation by a permutation in a permutation group. If we have a permutation Q=(i1 i2 … in) and a permutation P, then PQP−1 = (P(i1) P(i2) … P(in)).<br /> <br /> Please any help guys

 

[morphism]

Try it out with specific permutations and see if you can spot a general pattern.