Proving Permutation Inverses: (1 2 3) = (4 5 6)

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To prove that there exists a permutation sigma such that sigma * (1 2 3) * sigma inverse = (4 5 6), one can utilize the concept of conjugation in permutation groups. The discussion highlights that since both permutations have the same cycle structure, a suitable sigma can be constructed through a series of transpositions. Specifically, the transformation can be achieved by first mapping (1 2 3) to (4 2 3) using (1 4), then to (4 5 3) with (2 5), and finally to (4 5 6) using (3 6). The key takeaway is that the composition of these transpositions provides a systematic way to derive the required sigma. Understanding the mechanics of permutation notation and conjugation is essential for solving such problems in abstract algebra.
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jbunniii said:
Yes, that's correct. Note that this solution changes the cycle (1 2 3) to (4 5 6), and it changes the singleton cycles (4), (5), (6) to (1), (2), (3) respectively. In other words, writing out the full cycle notation including singletons:
##\sigma##(1 2 3)(4)(5)(6)##\sigma^{-1}## = (4 5 6)(1)(2)(3)

There are five other solutions in which (4), (5), and (6) are mapped to different arrangements of (1), (2), and (3), for example:
##\sigma##(1 2 3)(4)(5)(6)##\sigma^{-1}## = (4 5 6)(1)(3)(2)

The right hand side (4 5 6)(1)(3)(2) is the same permutation as (4 5 6)(1)(2)(3), since disjoint cycles commute, but we obtain it using a different ##\sigma##.

If you're bored, you can try to find the other solutions. :biggrin: For example, to transform
(1 2 3)(4)(5)(6) to
(4 5 6)(1)(3)(2),

##\sigma## needs to map as follows:
##1 \mapsto 4##
##4 \mapsto 1##
##2 \mapsto 5##
##5 \mapsto 3##
##3 \mapsto 6##
##6 \mapsto 2##
and therefore ##\sigma## = (1 4)(2 5 3 6) is another solution to the problem.

I did not know about singletons; thank you for that information!
 

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