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I found an interesting statement in the following exercise 3.2 a), but I'm confused:

http://books.google.com/books?id=7V...&oi=book_result&resnum=6&ct=result#PPA120,M1"

Why is there the restriction to [tex] Y_{0}^{0} > 1 [/tex] and [tex] det( Y_{\mu}^{\lambda} ) = 1 [/tex] in the definition of a Lorentz basis? In the literature you can also find the definition withouth the restriction to proper Lorentz-Transformations. So my question is if it is always possible to construct a basis with this restrictions and why?

Thanks

http://books.google.com/books?id=7V...&oi=book_result&resnum=6&ct=result#PPA120,M1"

Why is there the restriction to [tex] Y_{0}^{0} > 1 [/tex] and [tex] det( Y_{\mu}^{\lambda} ) = 1 [/tex] in the definition of a Lorentz basis? In the literature you can also find the definition withouth the restriction to proper Lorentz-Transformations. So my question is if it is always possible to construct a basis with this restrictions and why?

Thanks

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