Continuity and Dense Subsets of the Real Numbers

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around a proof concerning the continuity of a function f and its behavior on dense subsets of the real numbers. The original poster asserts that if f is continuous and equals zero on a dense subset, then it must equal zero everywhere on the real line.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster presents a proof and seeks feedback on its validity and potential improvements. Some participants question the assumptions made in the proof, particularly regarding uniform continuity, and suggest alternative proof strategies, such as proof by contradiction.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants providing feedback and raising questions about the original proof's assumptions. There is an ongoing exploration of different proof techniques, and participants are engaging in clarifying the reasoning behind the original poster's approach.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of clearly stating dependencies in the proof, particularly the relationship between delta and the point a, to avoid misunderstandings about continuity assumptions.

jgens
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Homework Statement



If [itex]f[/itex] is continuous and [itex]f(x)=0[/itex] for all [itex]x[/itex] in a dense subset of the real numbers, then [itex]f(x)=0[/itex] for all [itex]x \in \mathbb{R}[/itex].

Homework Equations



N/A

The Attempt at a Solution



Does this solution work? And if it does, can it be improved in some way?

Proof: From the continuity of [itex]f[/itex], for every [itex]\varepsilon > 0[/itex] we can find a [itex]\delta > 0[/itex], such that if [itex]|x-a| < \delta[/itex], then [itex]|f(x)-f(a)| < \varepsilon[/itex]. Because [itex]f(x)=0[/itex] for all [itex]x[/itex] in a dense subset of the real numbers, it's clearly possible to choose a number [itex]x_0[/itex] from [itex](a-\delta,a+\delta)[/itex] with [itex]f(x_0)=0[/itex]. This means that [itex]|f(x_0)-f(a)| = |f(a)| < \varepsilon[/itex]. Since this is necessarily true for any given [itex]\varepsilon > 0[/itex], it follows that [itex]|f(a)| < \varepsilon[/itex] for all [itex]\varepsilon > 0[/itex]. By the Archimedean property of the real numbers, 0 is the only real number satisfying this criterion, so [itex]f(a)=0[/itex]. Clearly, this holds for any number where [itex]f[/itex] is continuous, so [itex]f(x)=0[/itex] for all [itex]x \in \mathbb{R}[/itex], completing the proof.
 
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Looks fine to me.
 
Thanks. Is there any way that I can improve my proof then?
 
jgens said:
Thanks. Is there any way that I can improve my proof then?

Actually, your proof is assuming f is uniformly continuous, which you don't necessarily have. It's more straightforward to do a proof by contradiction. Assume f(x0)=c where c is not zero. Can you show that leads to a contradiction?
 
Dick, can you explain how my proof assumes uniform continuity? And yes, I know that I can prove it that way because that was my first thought, I'm just trying to see if it's possible to do it without using a contradiction.
 
Last edited:
jgens said:
Dick, can you explain how my proof assumes uniform continuity? And yes, I know that I can prove it that way because that was my first thought, I'm just trying to see if it's possible to do it without using a contradiction.

Actually, I take that back. The only reason I thought that is because you mentioned delta before you mentioned 'a'. I would put an "At any point a since f is continuous at a..." at the beginning. Or at least make it clear that delta depends on a. Otherwise a careless reader like me might think you are assuming otherwise.
 
Thanks! I'm sorry about that. I'll be more careful in the future.
 

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