Continuous uniform distribution function

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the continuous uniform distribution function, specifically the probability density function defined as f(x) = 1/(b-a) for a

Discussion Character

  • Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Some participants attempt to understand why the probability density function is defined as it is, questioning whether the probability of a specific value being zero implies that the probability over an interval must also be zero. Others suggest that integration is necessary to find probabilities over ranges, leading to further inquiries about the nature of summing probabilities in continuous distributions.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants raising questions about the interpretation of f(x) and the nature of probabilities in continuous contexts. Some have offered clarifications regarding the relationship between intervals and probabilities, while others are still grappling with the foundational concepts.

Contextual Notes

Participants are navigating the complexities of continuous random variables and the implications of having an uncountably infinite set of possible values within defined intervals. There is an ongoing examination of assumptions regarding point probabilities versus interval probabilities.

theone
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Homework Statement


Can someone explain why f(x) = 1/(b-a) for a<x<b ?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


shouldn't it be 0? since its a continuous random variable and so that interval from a to b has an infinite number of possible values?
 

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The probability to get a particular value for X is 0 but if you want to know the probability to get X within a range, for example 3<X<4 you need to integrate the probability density between these two values and that is not always 0. In a continuous distribution f(x) is a probability density. In the case of the example you posted it means you should integrate to get probability. Try to integrate f(x) and you will get interesting results, you may also understand why f(x) has that form.
 
theone said:

Homework Statement


Can someone explain why f(x) = 1/(b-a) for a<x<b ?

Homework Equations

The Attempt at a Solution


shouldn't it be 0? since its a continuous random variable and so that interval from a to b has an infinite number of possible values?

What do YOU think ##f(x)## means in this context? (Perhaps you are mis-interpreting the symbols, etc.)
 
Ray Vickson said:
What do YOU think ##f(x)## means in this context? (Perhaps you are mis-interpreting the symbols, etc.)

the probability that a continuous random variable X takes on one of its possible values x?
 
Diegor said:
The probability to get a particular value for X is 0 but if you want to know the probability to get X within a range, for example 3<X<4 you need to integrate the probability density between these two values and that is not always 0.

to get the probability of x falling within a range, aren't you essentially adding the probabilities of x taking on the particular values within the range... but if the probability of x taking on a particular value is 0, then why is this sum not always zero?
 
theone said:
the probability that a continuous random variable X takes on one of its possible values x?

No, absolutely not. For a continuous random variable the probability that ##X = x## is zero for all ##x.## However, the probability that ##X## takes a value between ##x## and ##x+\Delta x## (for small but nonzero ##\Delta x##) is given by ##f(x) \Delta x## (to lowest order in ##\Delta x##. For a uniform distribution on the interval ##[a,b]##, we have
$$ P\{ c < X < d \} = \frac{d-c}{b-a} = \frac{\text{small length}}{\text{large length}}$$
for any ##a \leq c < d \leq b##.

In other words, for a uniform distribution over an interval the probability of a sub-interval is proportional to the length of that sub-interval, but is independent of its "location". We get the same probability whether the sub-interval is near the beginning, in the middle, or near the end of the main interval.
 
theone said:
to get the probability of x falling within a range, aren't you essentially adding the probabilities of x taking on the particular values within the range... but if the probability of x taking on a particular value is 0, then why is this sum not always zero?
theone said:
to get the probability of x falling within a range, aren't you essentially adding the probabilities of x taking on the particular values within the range... but if the probability of x taking on a particular value is 0, then why is this sum not always zero?

Because we have an uncountably infinite set of points. The probability of an interval is NOT a SUM of point probabilities!

If I take the interval from 0 to 1 would you say its length must be zero because it is made up of points having length zero? If I take a triangle of base 2 and height 1 would you say its area is zero because it is made up of points of area zero? Well, probability behaves just like length or area in that regard.
 
That's why integration is involved and not regular sum like in discrete distributions. (Trying to adapt to discrete would be something like p =succes cases/posibble cases = infinity/infinity)

Think this way: Suppose that the probability to find values of x in a range let's say between 3 and 4 is not zero and then you take a small interval like 3,5 to 3,51, you will see that the probability is smaller. If you continue to shrink the interval you will find that the probability tends to zero but still you have a non zero probability in the (3,4) interval.

For example you go to the market to buy one liter of milk. It is unlikely that you find one bottle with exactly one liter but within 0,9 to 1,1 liters surely you will get more than one.
 

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