Contour integral along the imaginary axis

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the integral along the imaginary axis, specifically the integral of the function \(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2 + a^2}\) from \(-i\infty\) to \(i\infty\). Participants are exploring the implications of contour integration and the behavior of the function's poles located at \(z = \pm ia\).

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the choice of contour for the integral, questioning the applicability of Jordan's lemma in this context. There is a suggestion to change the variable to \(u = iz\) to transform the integral into one along the real axis, but concerns about convergence arise. The implications of convergence along different axes are also debated.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active with various approaches being considered. Some participants are questioning the validity of the integral after substitution, while others are exploring the relationship between convergence along the real and imaginary axes. There is no explicit consensus on the best approach yet, but several lines of reasoning are being explored.

Contextual Notes

Participants note that the integral along the imaginary axis may not exist if \(a\) is real, and that the method of circumventing poles can affect the result. The context of the problem is linked to physical applications, such as Green's functions in physics, which may influence the choice of contour.

dipole
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I'd like to evaluate the integral,
\int^{i\infty}_{-i\infty} \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2 + a^2}dz

along the imaginary axis. This function has poles at z = \pm ia, with corresponding residues \textrm{res}(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2 + a^2},\pm ia) = \pm\frac{e^{\mp a}}{2ai}

My question is - I'm not sure what contour to use. If I go from a segment (-iR, iR), while skirting around the poles, and close it with a semi-circle in the right-half plane the resulting arc in the lower-right half plane will not vanish according to Jordan's lemma... I can't find any examples in my book about how to do contours along the imaginary axis - they all go along the real axis and mostly make use of Jordan's Lemma to simplify things, which doesn't seem applicable here.

Any suggestions?
 
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dipole said:
I'd like to evaluate the integral,
\int^{i\infty}_{-i\infty} \frac{e^{iz}}{z^2 + a^2}dz

along the imaginary axis. This function has poles at z = \pm ia, with corresponding residues \textrm{res}(\frac{e^{iz}}{z^2 + a^2},\pm ia) = \pm\frac{e^{\mp a}}{2ai}

My question is - I'm not sure what contour to use. If I go from a segment (-iR, iR), while skirting around the poles, and close it with a semi-circle in the right-half plane the resulting arc in the lower-right half plane will not vanish according to Jordan's lemma... I can't find any examples in my book about how to do contours along the imaginary axis - they all go along the real axis and mostly make use of Jordan's Lemma to simplify things, which doesn't seem applicable here.

Any suggestions?

Why don't you change the variable z to u=iz and write the contour integral in terms of u. That will give you an integral along the real axis, right?
 
Hmm well that seems easy... so making the substitution u = iz, I'd have,

-i\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{e^{u}}{a^2-u^2}du

which clearly won't converge. Seems like a silly integral to ask us to do, but does this look correct?
 
dipole said:
Hmm well that seems easy... so making the substitution u = iz, I'd have,

-i\int^{\infty}_{-\infty} \frac{e^{u}}{a^2-u^2}du

which clearly won't converge. Seems like a silly integral to ask us to do, but does this look correct?

Yeah, I didn't check all of the signs, but I think that integral has some problems. The same ones your original integral does.
 
It's definitely the correct integral, we were asked to integrate along the real axis first, which was easy enough, and then along the imaginary axis.

Is it true in general that if an integral converges along the real axis it will diverge along the imaginary axis? I know analytic functions have to be unbounded somewhere - this a manifestation of that?
 
dipole said:
It's definitely the correct integral, we were asked to integrate along the real axis first, which was easy enough, and then along the imaginary axis.

Is it true in general that if an integral converges along the real axis it will diverge along the imaginary axis? I know analytic functions have to be unbounded somewhere - this a manifestation of that?

No, that's not true. It is true analytic functions can't be bounded unless they are constant. But 1/(z^2-i) converges along both the real and imaginary axes.
 
If a is real the integral along the imaginary axis doesn't exist. You can however calculate an integral using a contour that circumvents the poles along the imaginary axis somehow. The result will however depend on the way how you avoid the singularities.

Such integrals appear in physics when looking for Green's functions of oscillators or for relativistic wave equations. Then the physical problem tells you, which Green's function (retarded, advanced, time-ordered, anti-timeordered etc.) you want to calculate and this determines, how to avoid the singularities.
 

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