Converge or diverge arctan [please move to calculus section]

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence or divergence of the arctan function, particularly in the context of calculus. Participants are exploring the behavior of the arctan function as its argument approaches infinity.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are questioning whether the limit of arctan as x approaches infinity exists and discussing potential series representations. There are inquiries about using the definition of the limit and the squeeze theorem to support their reasoning.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with participants sharing their thoughts on the limit of arctan and its implications. Some have suggested using definitions and the squeeze theorem, while others are seeking additional input from others in the thread.

Contextual Notes

There is a mention of the original poster's confusion regarding the placement of the thread in the forum, indicating a potential misunderstanding of the problem's context. Participants are also navigating the definitions and properties of the arctan function without reaching a consensus on the need for formal proof.

rcmango
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Homework Statement




Sorry wrong section! should be in calculus!

does this problem converge or diverge?

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The Attempt at a Solution



Not sure where to start, I've never seen a series arctan problem before, is there a way to switch it around to look like i want it too, maybe with sin or cos. please help.
 
Last edited:
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Is you're question whether [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}\arctan{x}[/tex] exists? My first instinct is to try for a series representation, but I'm not sure.

Edit:
Come to think of it, by definition, the range of [tex]\arctan{x}[/tex] is [tex](-\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2})[/tex] while its domain is [tex](-\infty, \infty)[/tex], so, not only does [tex]\lim_{x\rightarrow \infty}\arctan{x}[/tex] exist, it equals [tex]\frac{\pi}{2}[/tex].
 
Last edited:
Okay, so I know the limit is pi/2, so is there a series test i can use to prove this?
 
I don't know (>_<), but it's kind of not something that needs to be proven since it's part of the definition.
 
So if i show the definition as work, would you believe that to be enough? thanks for all the help.
 
also, could i show this using the squeeze theorem with bounds -pi/2 and upper bound pi/2
 
anyone else who can comment on what's been said here please?
 
rcmango said:
Okay, so I know the limit is pi/2, so is there a series test i can use to prove this?

You could.

arctan(x) = x - x^3/3 + x^5/5 - x^7/7 + x^9/9 - ... (-1 < x < 1) is the maclaurin series for it.
 

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