Convergence of ∑2^(1/n)-1: Integer Formula and Integration Explained"

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence of the series ∑(2^(1/n) - 1) as n approaches positive infinity. The original poster, Egwin, expresses difficulty in finding a suitable formula for convergence and considers using integration as a potential approach.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Egwin attempts to explore convergence through integration and seeks assistance with an integer formula. Other participants introduce the binomial expansion and question the validity of certain assumptions regarding the expansion's parameters.

Discussion Status

The conversation includes various attempts to clarify the convergence of the series, with some participants providing insights into the binomial expansion and its implications. While Egwin claims to have found a solution, the discussion remains open with differing interpretations and approaches being explored.

Contextual Notes

There are indications of uncertainty regarding the conditions under which the binomial expansion is valid, particularly concerning the value of x. Additionally, the original poster expresses concern about their understanding and language proficiency.

egwin
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Hello,
I want to check convergence for the following series:
∑2^(1/n)-1
so that's the n'th root of two minus one, for n going to positive infinity

Now all possible formulas i know come out inconclusive,
so the only formula i can think of is the integer formula, now i thought
to make things easier to just integrate 2^(1/n) and if this series proves to be convergent then that proves the convergency (as it is always "1" larger than the other one).

Now as i am seem to be a complete idiot i cannot even find the integer for this one.

Can someone help me?

Sorry if my English is not so good.

Thank you in advance,
Egwin.
 
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You have the expansion:

[tex](1+x)^p = 1 +p x + O(p^2)[/tex]

What happens when x=1 and p=1/n is very small?
 
thanks

i didnt really know what you meant,

but i have the solution now,
if you're interested, it's in the attachment.

egwin.
 

Attachments

hello status x,

in your expansion /x/ should be <1
does it still work for x=1 then?
 
The full expansion is:

[tex](1+x)^p=1+px+\frac{p(p-1)}{2!} x^2 + \frac{p(p-1)(p-2)}{3!} x^3 + ...[/tex]

which is valid for all p, all |x|<1. I made a mistake before, the second term is actually still O(p) as p->0. For p very small, we can approximate [itex]p-n \approx -n[/itex], so:

[tex](1+x)^p \approx 1+px(1+\frac{-1}{2} x + \frac{2\cdot 1}{3!} x^2 + ...)[/tex]

[tex]=1+px(1-\frac{1}{2} x + \frac{1}{3} x^2 + ...)[/tex]

with x=1 (or, more accurately, taking the limit as x->1, since, as you pointed out, the series doesn't strictly converge at x=1), the term in parantheses converges to some number (ln(2) I think), so we still get:

[tex]2^p \rightarrow 1+Cp[/tex] as [itex]p \rightarrow 0[/itex]

for some constant C, or in other words:

[tex]2^{1/n}-1 \rightarrow \frac{C}{n}[/tex] as [itex]n \rightarrow \infty[/itex]

Since the sum of 1/n diverges, this implies the sum of 2^(1/n)-1 does as well. I think this is all right, but there are some iffy arguments, and the method you posted is probably easier.
 
Last edited:

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