Convergence of Factorial Functions at Infinity

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the limit of the expression \(\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!}\) as \(n\) approaches infinity, specifically exploring whether this limit equals infinity. The subject area includes factorial functions and limits in mathematical analysis.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss various approaches to prove the limit, including the use of logarithms and Stirling's approximation. Some question the effectiveness of these methods and suggest alternative strategies, such as manipulating the factorials directly or using bounds.

Discussion Status

The discussion is active, with multiple participants sharing their thoughts and methods. Some have found success with specific approaches, while others are still exploring different lines of reasoning. There is no explicit consensus on a single method, but several productive directions have been identified.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the relevance of Stirling's approximation and its modifications, as well as the potential for divergence comparisons with known series like the harmonic series. There is an emphasis on the need for rigorous justification of assumptions made during the exploration of the limit.

Zetison
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Homework Statement


Show that the folowing holds:
\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} = \infty

Homework Equations


It can be shown that
\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} = \prod_{k=1}^n \frac{4k}{k+n}

The Attempt at a Solution


If I can proove that
\lim_{n\to\infty} \ln\left[\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} \right] = \infty
then I am done since the logarithm is a strictly increasing function.

By using the "Relevant equation" I have
\ln\left[\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} \right] = \ln\left[\prod_{k=1}^n \frac{4k}{k+n}\right] = \sum_{k=1}^n \ln\left(\frac{4}{1+\frac{n}{k}}\right)

But from here I don't get any further...
 
Last edited:
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Zetison said:

Homework Statement


Show that the folowing holds:
\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} = \infty

Homework Equations


It can be shown that
\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} = \prod_{k=1}^n \frac{4k}{k+n}

The Attempt at a Solution


If I can proove that
\lim_{n\to\infty} \ln\left[\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} \right] = \infty
then I am done since the logarithm is a strictly increasing function.

By using the "Relevant equation" I have
\ln\left[\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} \right] = \ln\left[\prod_{k=1}^n \frac{4k}{k+n}\right] = \sum_{k=1}^n \ln\left(\frac{4}{1+\frac{n}{k}}\right)

But from here I don't get any further...

Can't you just use Stirling's approximation on the factorials in the original problem?
 
I approached it a little differently than you - here was my thinking:

in the numerator distribute the 2's so that you get two products of only even numbers: ##\frac{(2*4*6*...*2n)^2}{2n!}## This would allow you to cancel out the even terms in the denominator and get ##\frac{2*4*6*...*2n}{1*3*5*...*2n-1}##. I then Identify this as ##\prod_{k=1}^n \frac{2k}{2k-1}##. From here you should be able to use logs to convert this product to a sum and use the integral test (or perhaps something else) to show that the sum must diverge.

Good Luck!
 
Zetison said:

Homework Statement


Show that the folowing holds:
\lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} = \infty


Homework Equations


It can be shown that
\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} = \prod_{k=1}^n \frac{4k}{k+n}


The Attempt at a Solution


If I can proove that
\lim_{n\to\infty} \ln\left[\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} \right] = \infty
then I am done since the logarithm is a strictly increasing function.

By using the "Relevant equation" I have
\ln\left[\frac{(n!)^2 4^n}{(2n)!} \right] = \ln\left[\prod_{k=1}^n \frac{4k}{k+n}\right] = \sum_{k=1}^n \ln\left(\frac{4}{1+\frac{n}{k}}\right)

But from here I don't get any further...

If you don't like to use Stirling's approximation, you can use a modification of it to get both lower and upper bounds: for any integer ##k \geq 1## we have
\sqrt{2 \pi}k^{k + \frac{1}{2}}e^{-k} < k! < \sqrt{2 \pi}k^{k + \frac{1}{2}}e^{-k+ \frac{1}{12k}}
This works well even for small k; for example, for k = 1 it gives
.9221370087 < 1 < 1.002274449 and for k = 2 it gives 1.919004351 < 2 < 2.000652047 .

For a simple proof, see Feller, "Introduction to Probability Theory and Its Applications, Vol I, Wiley (1967).
 
Last edited:
Thanks for the replies! The method hapefish proposed worked very vell. The sum diverges by the comparison test with the harmonic series. I also solved the problem using stirlings formula, thanks a lot guys! :)
 

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