Convergence of Integral: Splitting and Comparing Functions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around the convergence or divergence of the integral \(\int \frac{dx}{\ln(x)}\) from 0 to 1. Participants are exploring different functions for comparison and the implications of their behaviors near the limits of integration.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • The original poster attempts to compare \(\frac{1}{\ln(x)}\) with \(\frac{1}{x}\) and \(\frac{1}{x+1}\) to assess convergence. Some participants question the validity of these comparisons, particularly regarding the behavior of the functions near zero. Others suggest finding a function that approaches negative infinity more slowly than \(\frac{1}{\ln(x)}\) as \(x\) approaches zero.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with various approaches being considered. Some participants have provided guidance on the need for a suitable comparison function, while others express confusion about applying integration techniques and the integral test.

Contextual Notes

There is a noted concern about the behavior of the integral as \(x\) approaches zero, and the participants are grappling with the implications of using functions that may not meet the criteria for comparison in this context.

Dell
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i am given the following, and asked if it converges or diverges

[tex]\int[/tex]dx/ln(x) (from 0-1)

what i did was look for a similar function
i took 1/x which is bigger than 1/lnx,
but 1/x diverges from 0-1

can i split my function up and compare
[tex]\int[/tex]dx/ln(x) (from 0-0.5) + [tex]\int[/tex]dx/ln(x) (from 0.5-1)
now i know that 1/x converges from 0.5-1 so 1/lnx does as well

now i need to find a fuction to compare 1/lnx with from 0-0.5
1/lnx < 1/(x+1)
1/(x+1) converges
therefore 1/lnx does as well

therefore 1/lnx is made up of two converging parts from 0-1 so the whole also converges


is this correct?
 
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The integral is finite for any interval (k,1), where 0 < k < 1, because continuous, bounded functions are always integrable. You can't compare 1/ln(x) to 1/x or 1/(x+1) for that matter because the technique you're working with only works for positive functions. We're trying to check that the integral isn't NEGATIVE infinity, so finding a function that's larger than it on an interval doesn't work. You need to find a function that decreases to -infinity as x goes to 0 SLOWER than 1/ln(x) on an arbitrary small interval around 0. Considering that ln(x) goes to -infinity as x goes to 0 at the same rate that e^x goes to infinity as x goes to infinity, what could you use?
 
i don't know, 1/e^x ??
i understand what you are saying but don't understand how to put it into practice
 
i tried 1/(e^1/x) but i found that this converges and is smaller than 1/lnx so it doesn't help, please give some idea of what to do
 
use the integral test, by using integration by parts.
 
how do i integrate in parts, i tried and i keep on going in cirlces!

i made t=lnx, dt=dx/x

then got

integral of ((e^t)/t)dt, made 1/t=u e^tdt=dv, and even tried the other way round, -nothing!
 

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