Convergence of Integrals: Proving f = 0 Using Continuity and Power Functions

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around proving that a continuous function \( f \) on the interval \([a,b]\) must be zero if the integral of \( x^k f(x) \) equals zero for all non-negative integers \( k \). Participants are exploring the implications of continuity and the properties of integrals in this context.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the Weierstrass approximation theorem and its relevance to approximating the function \( f \) with polynomials. There are inquiries about how the integral of \( f^2 \) relates to the original problem and the implications of the hypothesis involving \( x^k \).

Discussion Status

Some participants have offered guidance regarding the use of polynomial approximations and the implications of continuity. There is an ongoing exploration of the relationship between the integrals of \( f \) and its approximations, with various interpretations being discussed.

Contextual Notes

Participants are considering the constraints imposed by the continuity of \( f \) and the requirement that the integral of \( x^k f(x) \) equals zero for all \( k \). There is also a focus on justifying each step taken in the reasoning process.

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"Suppose f is continuous on [a,b] and for all k = 0,1,2,3,4,5,... [tex]\int_a^b x^kf(x) = 0[/tex]. Prove that f = 0."

What I know so far:

f(c)=0 for some c in [a,b]

[tex]\int_a^b f=0[/tex]

[tex]\int_a^b x^k \int_a^b f=0[/tex]

Any hint on how to proceed would be appreciated.
 
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Use Weierstrass approximation, and consider [itex]\int f^2[/itex].
 
I can't see the solution. Can you elaborate a little more?
 
Last edited:
First, do you know the Weierstrass approximation theorem? Next, if p is any polynomial, what is [itex]\int pf[/itex]? Putting those two facts together, what can you conclude about [itex]\int f^2[/itex]?
 
Weierstrass approximation theorem tells me that f(x) can be uniformly approximated by polynomials. So give e>0, for some p(x), |p(x)-f(x)|<e for all x. x^k * f(x) is apprximately x^k * p(x). But I don't understand how this has to do with f^2.
 
f is bounded, so there exists M such that M > |f(x)| for all x in [a,b]. For all e > 0, there exists a polynomial p(x) such that |p(x) - f(x)| < e/M for all x. Thus, for such a polynomial, |f(x)p(x) - f²(x)| < e

[tex]|\int f^2| = |\int f^2 + 0| = |\int f^2 - \int fp| = |\int f^2 - fp| \leq \int |fp - f^2| \leq (b-a)e[/tex]

Since we can make e arbitarily small, [itex]|\int f^2| = 0[/itex], but f² is non-negative continuous, so f² is zero, hence so is f.
 
At no point did you use the hypothesis of 'x^k for all k=0,1,2,...' . This would imply that if f is continuous on [a,b] and [tex]\int_a^b f=0[/tex], then f=0.
 
Treadstone 71 said:
At no point did you use the hypothesis of 'x^k for all k=0,1,2,...' . This would imply that if f is continuous on [a,b] and [tex]\int_a^b f=0[/tex], then f=0.

Try to justify each of AKG's steps carefully.
 
I understand now. Thanks for the help.
 

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