Convergence of Riemann Sums for Limit of Series

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around evaluating the limit of a series involving the sum of squares, specifically the expression \(\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1^2+2^2+3^2+\ldots+n^2}{n^3}\right)\). Participants explore the connection between Riemann sums and definite integrals in the context of this limit, particularly focusing on the function \(f(x) = x^2\) over the interval [0, 1].

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the formulation of the limit as a Riemann sum and explore the relationship between the sum of squares and the corresponding integral. Questions arise regarding the choice of function and points in the partition, as well as the implications of the Riemann integral theorem.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exploration of the Riemann sum approach, with some participants expressing understanding of the connection to integrals. Others are questioning the assumptions made about the function and the intervals used in the partition. Guidance has been offered regarding the identification of the function \(f(x)\) and the limits of integration.

Contextual Notes

Some participants express uncertainty about the validity of their assumptions regarding the intervals and the nature of the function involved. There is a recognition that the discussion is complex and that various interpretations of the problem are being considered.

springo
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Homework Statement


I need to find the following:
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1^2+2^2+3^2+...+n^2}{n^3} \right)[/tex]

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I know I could do the sum of the series to find the result but I would like to use Riemann sums.
I think I have to start by writing the limit as:
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n}\left(\frac{k}{n} \right)^2[/tex]
However, I'm not sure how to continue.

Thanks for your help.
 
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12 + 22 + 32 + ... + n2 = [n(n+1)(2n+1)]/6
 
The thing with Riemann sums is that they are related to the Riemann integral through the equation

[tex]\lim_{\max\{\Delta x_i\}\rightarrow 0}\sum_{i=1}^n f(x_i^*)\Delta x_i=\int_a^bf(x)dx[/tex]

This means that for a bounded integrable function f:[a,b]-->R and any sequence [itex]\{\mathcal{P}_n\}_{n\in\mathbb{N}}[/itex] of partitions of [a,b] such that the largest subinterval in [itex]\mathcal{P}_n=\{a=x_0^{(n)}, x_1^{(n)},\ldots,x_N_n^{(n)}=b\}[/itex] goes to zero as [itex]n\rightarrow\infty[/itex], the sequence of associated Riemann sums approaches the integral of f over [a,b]:

[tex]\left(\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left[\max_{1\leq i\leq N_n}(\Delta x_i^{(n)})\right]= 0 \right)\Longrightarrow \left(\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{N_n}f(x_i^*)\Delta x_i^{(n)} = \int_a^bf(x)dx\right)[/tex]

So...

What we have here is the limit

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n} \left(\frac{i}{n} \right)^2[/tex]

Notice that for each positive integer n, {0=0/n, 1/n, 2/n ...,(n-1)/n, n/n=1} is a partition of the interval [0,1] and in such a partition, each subinterval has length 1/n. And [itex]1/n\rightarrow 0[/itex] as [itex]n\rightarrow\infty[/itex], so according to the big implication above,

[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}f(x_i^*)\frac{1}{n} = \int_0^1f(x)dx[/tex]

for any bounded integrable function f:[0,1]-->R.

Now, for which function f and choice of [itex]x_i^*\in [(i-1)/n,i/n][/itex] do we have

[tex]f(x_i^*)=\left(\frac{i}{n}\right)^2[/tex]

??

Once you figure that out, you can use the fundamental theorem of calculus to find the value of the integral of f and hence the value of the sum you're interested in.
 
OK, so if I understood well x ∈ [0,1] since 1/n is creating partitions of that interval.

Then we have xi* ∈ [xi-1, xi].
Since xi - xi-1 = i/n we have xi* = i/n.
Therefore f(x) = x2.

Then:
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1^2+2^2+3^2+. ..+n^2}{n^3} \right) = \int_0^1 x^2 dx = \frac{1}{3}[/tex]
I checked the result and it's correct, what about the proof?

Thanks again.
 
springo said:
OK, so if I understood well x ∈ [0,1] since 1/n is creating partitions of that interval.

Then we have xi* ∈ [xi-1, xi].
Since xi - xi-1 = i/n we have xi* = i/n.
Therefore f(x) = x2.

Then:
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1^2+2^2+3^2+. ..+n^2}{n^3} \right) = \int_0^1 x^2 dx = \frac{1}{3}[/tex]
I checked the result and it's correct, what about the proof?

Thanks again.

I'm not sure I agree with your chain of implications from a logical standpoint but you're the one who's best placed to say if you understand or not.

And what do you mean by "what about the proof"?

In any case, the way I would have solved the problem is simply by noting that, in view of what has been say above, the sums

[tex]\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n} \left(\frac{i}{n} \right)^2[/tex]

are Riemann sums of the function f:[0,1]-->R defined by f(x)=x² where the points [itex]x_i^*\in [x_{i-1},x_i]=[(i-1)/n,i/n][/itex] have been chosen equal to i/n.

Hence,

[tex] \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n} \left(\frac{i}{n} \right)^2 =\int_0^1x^2dx=1/3[/tex]
 
By the "proof" I meant the fact that the function is f(x) = x2. But now I realize I made a mistake since xi - xi-1 = 1/n ≠ i/n.
So I don't understand how do you know the function is f(x) = x2?
Is it because xi* = i/n, and if so, how can you find that?
Thanks.
 
You do not know a priori that xi* = i/n.

Suppose more generally that you are given the sum following Riemann sum

[tex]\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n}F(i,n) \right)[/tex]

where F(i,n) is some expression involving i and n.

The question is,

"For which function f:[0,1]-->R and which choice of points [itex]x_i^*\in [(i-1)/n,i/n][/itex] do we have [itex]f(x_i^*)=F(i,n)[/itex] for all i=0,...,n ??"

In the present case, F(i,n)=(i/n)² and so after a moment of reflection trying various combinations of functions and points [itex]x_i^*[/itex], you will conclude that f(x)=x² and [itex]x_i^*=i/n[/itex] does the trick.
 
Thanks, I think I understood.

So would this be correct so far?
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+n}} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+2n}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+3n}}+...+\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+nn}} \right) = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}\frac{1}{\sqrt{n+i}} = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{1}{\sqrt{n}}f(x_i^*)=\int_{0}^{\infty}f(x)dx[/tex]

With [itex]x_i^*\in[(i-1)/\sqrt{n}, i/\sqrt{n}][/itex].
I thought the interval is [0, ∞) since for each n, we have {0, 1/√n, 2/√n, ..., n/√n} a partition of [0, ∞), is that right?
Now I would need to find xi* and f just by guessing?
 
The theorem concerns linking Riemann sum and integral concerns definite integrals. [0,∞) is not a valid interval.

But

[tex]\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+in}}=\frac{1}{n}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+i/n}}[/tex]
 
  • #10
OK, now it all makes sense :)
[tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+ n}} + \frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+2n}}+\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+3n}}+...+\frac{1}{\sqrt{n^2+nn}} \right) = \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+\frac{i}{n}}} =\int_{0}^{1}\frac{dx}{\sqrt{1+x}}=\left[ 2\sqrt{1+x}\right]_0^1=2\sqrt{2}-2[/tex]
 
  • #11
Well done.
 
  • #12
I don't mean to hijack this thread, but I have a question for quasar.

In this step right here: [tex]\lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\sum_{i=1}^{n}\frac{1}{n} \frac{1}{\sqrt{1+\frac{i}{n}}} =\int_{0}^{1}\frac{dx}{\sqrt{1+x}}=\left[ 2\sqrt{1+x}\right]_0^1[/tex],

Is the integral from 0 to 1 because in the summation, when i = 1 then the term 1/n = 1 and as i tends to infinity, the term 1/n will tend to 0?
 
  • #13
The integral is from 0 to 1 because i/n is some point taken from the subinterval [(i-1)/n, i/n] of the partition {0, 1/n, 2/n, ..., n/n=1} of [0,1]. It's all explained in post #3.
 

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