Converting Complex Impedance to Euler Form: Is it Applicable to Just Cos?

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wateveriam
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1. I have a complex Ohm question in which u(t) is given as Umax*[itex]\sqrt{2}[/itex]cos([itex]\varpi[/itex]+[itex]\varphi[/itex]), i know how to convert from trigo to euler form if i have both sin and cos but this doesn't. Is it possible to convert just a cos to Euler form ?





3. Since it is a complex impedance i tried to reason that if we calculate the rms intensity we simply take the real part and leave out the imaginary part, so i by-part the conversion. Is it ok to do that ?
 
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cos(ωt +φ) = Re[ei(ωt +φ)]. One calculates with the exponential form, then takes the real part of the result to get the average power, and it comes out that the rms voltage or current is 1/√2 times of the amplitude of the exponential form.

ehild
 
Thank you, i understand now, so the given formula gives the numerical result of the Urms and the imaginary part is implied from the angle?
 
I do not get you. In the original formula, the time dependence should be U(t) = Umax cos (ωt+φ), and Umax =√2*Urms. The Euler form is U0ei(ωt+φ), with U0=Umax.

ehild
 
Oh i meant i(t) = cos(ωt+φ) + j*sin(ωt+φ) so the imaginary part of i(t) is j*sin(ωt+φ) so for U=Ri(t), we take the real part and get U = R*cos(ωt+φ) and hence the imaginary part is implied by (ωt+φ), i.e, it is not written out but we can easily get it to be j*sin(ωt+φ). Is that not correct ?
 
It is about right, but the imaginary part is defined as sin(ωt+φ), without j. But it is multiplied by j when you write the trigonometric form of the complex number. Any complex number is of the form

z=x + j*y, x is called the real part and y the imaginary part.

ehild
 
Thank you i handed in the work yesterday and it seems i somehow got it right, if only the numerical values. Cheers :D