Question : How do i convert an infinite series into an integral?(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

I searched a few sites and the method given is as follows

replace r/n by x

repalce1/n by dx

replace Ʃ by ∫

which works perfectly fine when i tried a few examples but i dont understand the intuition behind it. Why this method works? IS there any kind of derivation? Why this is been done and how it works - please explain me

Thank you

P.S. - i just joined physicsforum

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# Converting infinite series into an integral - intuition

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