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Converting units for angular motion

  1. Sep 1, 2015 #1
    I think angular velocity can be measured in radians/second. I also heard that if I multiply a value of angular velocity that is in the units of Rad./sec. by a certain value of radius in meters, I will get m/s, but this is the instantaneous tangential velocity.

    Is any of these right?

    In addition, since torque is measured in N*m (cross product or something, don't quite get it), does this mean that angular velocity can be measured in m^2/s and not be instantaneous and tangential?
    (Priority on the first paragraph)
  2. jcsd
  3. Sep 1, 2015 #2
    Yes. Those are the SI units of angular velocity.

    Yes the instantaneous speed of a particle is the product of its angular velocity (in radians per second) and its distance from the axis of rotation.

    No. Just based on the units that is not possible. Angular velocity must have units of [some angular measure]/[time]
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