A.T. said:
Jeff Root said:
Since the Earth is an oblate spheroid rather than a sphere,
the path is a great ellipse instead of a great circle.
Repeating that claim doesn't make it less wrong.
The issue was explained several times in this thread:
The geoid is per definition an equipotential surface in its
rest frame. So a mass placed at rest relative to the surface
of a frictionless geoid will not move relative to it, and thus
cannot move to the equator.
I take it that what you disagree with is my assertion that the
mass moves, not my description of the shape of the Earth or my
description of the imaginary path as a great ellipse, correct?
Your argument seems to be that there is a net gravitational
force on the mass toward a point on Earth's axis on the same
side of the equator as the mass, pulling the mass toward the
nearer pole, into a path along the line of latitude it starts
at, and maintaining it at that latitude, instead of moving in
a straight line away from the point of release.
When I analyze the situation, I get the opposite: There is a
net gravitational force on the mass toward a point on Earth's
axis that is on the opposite side of the equator from the mass,
pulling the mass toward the equator, due to the pull of the
equatorial bulge. The shift of direction of the net force away
from Earth's center is very small (zero at the equator and poles)
because the gravitational effect of the bulge is small compared
to the effect of the whole Earth. It is not part of my argumet,
just a minor adjustment. I only mention it because it appears
to be opposite to your assertion.
The very small shift caused by the gravity of the bulge is in
addition to the larger shift caused by the "centrifugal force"
toward the celestial equator, away from Earth's axis, which
causes the bulge. This "force" is strongest at the equator,
where it is straight up, and drops to zero at the poles, where
it is horizontal. The shift in the direction of "down" between
the equator and poles caused by this "centrifugal force" is
always larger than the shift caused by the gravity of the bulge.
This shift is not part of my argument either. My agument refers
to Newton's first law instead of "centrifugal force".
Both shifts are in the same direction, toward the opposite side
of the equator. The net result is that "down" at any point
between the equator and poles is toward a point on the axis in
the opposite hemisphere, such that it is always perpendicular
to the surface, which is "level".
So my question to you is where the gravitational force comes
from that causes a mass on the frictionless surface to turn
toward the nearer pole and stay at the latitude it started at,
instead of continuing on in the direction it was moving when
the friction was removed.
If the mass were in orbit around the Earth, directly above the
release point on the surface and traveling in exactly the same
direction (due east), it would be on a trajectory that would take
it toward the equator. Even if was moving at the same speed as
the surface, it would travel toward the equator as it fell to the
ground along a narrow elliptical orbit, because either way it
would orbit Earth's center, not a point on Earth's axis closer
to the nearer pole.
Why would a mass sliding across the surface be different? Why
would a mass on the surface be pulled sideways to circle around
the nearer pole, while a mass in orbit travels straight ahead,
on a great circle or great ellipse around Earth's center?
This is exactly what the original poster was asking. He was
mistaken, though, in confusing it with Coriolis effect in the
thread title. That is a change in relative east-west motion,
not north-south motion.
-- Jeff, in Minneapolis