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Correspondence theorem for rings

  1. Jan 30, 2012 #1

    "What does the correspondence theorem tell us about ideals in Z[x] that contain x[itex]^{2}[/itex] + 1?

    My thinking is that since Z[x]/(x[itex]^{2}[/itex] + 1) is surjective map and its kernel is principle and generated by x[itex]^{2}[/itex] + 1 since x[itex]^{2}[/itex] + 1 is irreducible. This implies ideals that contain x[itex]^{2}[/itex] + 1 are principle and isomorphic to C.

    I'm not sure if (a) my reasoning is right and (b) what answer this question is trying to get from us.

    Thank you for your help
  2. jcsd
  3. Jan 30, 2012 #2


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    What you said makes very little sense. I would go back and make sure I understood the definitions of "ideal", "quotient ring" and "homomorphism" and then I would try to understand what the correspondence theorem says.
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