The D'Alembert equation for the mechanical waves was written in 1750. It is not invariant under a Galilean transformation.(adsbygoogle = window.adsbygoogle || []).push({});

Why nobody was shocked about this at the time? Why we had to wait more than a hundred years (Maxwell's equations) to discover that Galilean transformations are wrong? Couldn't we see that they wrong already by looking at the D'Alembert equation for the mechanical waves?

Am I missig something?

Thanks,

F.

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# I D'Alembert equation and Galilean transformation

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