Definite integrals with -infinity low bound

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the interpretation and evaluation of definite integrals with a lower bound of negative infinity, particularly in the context of improper integrals. Participants explore the mathematical definitions, implications, and conditions necessary for such integrals to exist.

Discussion Character

  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning
  • Debate/contested

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the meaning of integrals of the form y=\int_{-\infty }^{t}{F\left( x \right)}dx and suggests that it implies no lower bounds exist.
  • Another participant defines the integral as y = \lim_{a \rightarrow -\infty} \int_{a}^{t} F(x) dx and explains how to evaluate it, emphasizing the limit process involved.
  • A different participant draws a parallel between the integral and a non-definite integral, questioning if y(t) can be expressed similarly to an indefinite integral.
  • One participant proposes that for the definite integral to exist, the function must approach zero as the variable approaches negative infinity, noting that this condition is not reversible.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the implications and conditions surrounding the existence of definite integrals with a lower bound of negative infinity. No consensus is reached on the interpretations or evaluations presented.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention the need for certain conditions on the integrand for the integral to converge, but the specific assumptions and definitions are not fully resolved. There is also a suggestion that the context of engineering texts may influence the interpretations discussed.

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I see equations of the form,

y=\int_{-\infty }^{t}{F\left( x \right)}dx

a lot in my texts.

What exactly does it mean? From the looks of it, it just means there is effectively no lower bounds.

I looked up improper integrals, but I can't say I really understand what is going on.

So when evaluating,

If \frac{d\left( f\left( x \right) \right)}{dx}=F\left( X \right)

Do I just take the lower bound term - that I have to subtract - to be the f(x) as x approaches -infinity? Do I set the lower bound term to 0?

y=\int_{-\infty }^{t}{F\left( x \right)}dx\; =\; f\left( t \right)-0=f\left( t \right)

?
 
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It's defined this way:

\int_{-\infty}^t F(x) dx = \lim_{a \rightarrow -\infty} \int_{a}^{t} F(x) dx

and you would evaluate it as follows:

y = \int_{-\infty}^t F(x) dx = \lim_{a \rightarrow -\infty} \int_{a}^{t} F(x) dx = f(t) - \lim_{a \rightarrow -\infty} f(a)
 
OK I just saw this in my text (paraphrasing),

y\left( t \right)=\int_{-\infty }^{t}{x\left( \tau \right)}d\tau

therefore

x\left( t \right)=\frac{dy}{dt}​

So y\left( t \right)=\int_{-\infty }^{t}{x\left( \tau \right)}d\tau is just like a non-definite integral?

y\left( t \right)=\int_{-\infty }^{t}{x\left( \tau \right)}d\tau =\; \int_{}^{}{x\left( t \right)dt} ?

BTW I'm studying an engineering text, so maybe it's "shortcuted" somehow.
 
I think it's pretty easily provable that in order for a definite integral with a lower bound at -infinity to exist, the function being integrated needs to tend to zero as the variable being integrated tends to -infinity. (Note that it doesn't work the other way! Try -1/x for proof!) So the derivative of the integral would be just the integrand, assuming that the integrand satisfies the conditions.
 

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