Density of product of two uniform RVs

In summary, the density of W is given by f(w) = 1/2 (1 - w + w ln|w|) for 0 < |w| < 1 and f(w) = 0 otherwise.
  • #1
obesogen
10
0

Homework Statement


If X,Y are independent RVs ~ U[-1,1], and W=X*Y, find the density of W.

Homework Equations


The Attempt at a Solution


I feel my approach is right, but the bounds of my final integral don't make sense.
[tex]
F_{XY}(w)=P(XY \leq w)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} P(XY \leq w | Y=y)*f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}P(X*y \leq w)*f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_{-1}^{1}P(X*y \leq w)*f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_{-1}^{1}P(X \leq w/y)*f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_{-1}^{1}F_X(w/y)*f_Y(y)dy \\

[/tex]
For some RV Z, Z~U[-1,1], [itex] F_Z(z)=(z+1)/2 [/itex]
And the density of Y is constant (1/2).
So the integral becomes
[tex]
\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{\frac{w}{y}+1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}dy \\
=\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{w}{4y}+\frac{1}{4} dy \\
=\frac{w}{4}log(y)+\frac{y}{4} \rvert_{-1}^1 \\
[/tex]

which obviously has a problem.
 
Last edited:
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  • #2
obesogen said:

Homework Statement


If X,Y are independent RVs ~ U[-1,1], and W=X*Y, find the density of W.


Homework Equations





The Attempt at a Solution


I feel my approach is right, but the bounds of my final integral don't make sense.
[tex]
F_{XY}(w)=P(XY \leq w)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} P(XY \leq w | Y=y)*f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}P(X*y \leq w)*f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_{-1}^{1}P(X*y \leq w)*f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_{-1}^{1}P(X \leq w/y)*f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_{-1}^{1}F_X(w/y)*f_Y(y)dy \\

[/tex]
For some RV Z, Z~U[-1,1], [itex] F_Z(z)=(z+1)/2 [/itex]
And the density of Y is constant (1/2).
So the integral becomes
[tex]
\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{\frac{w}{y}+1}{2}*\frac{1}{2}dy \\
=\int_{-1}^{1} \frac{w}{4y}+\frac{1}{4} dy \\
=\frac{w}{4}log(y)+\frac{y}{4} \rvert_{-1}^1 \\
[/tex]

which obviously has a problem.

W can range from -1 to +1. To disentangle signs I think it is easiest to look at P{W > w} for 0 < w < 1 and P{W < w} for -1 < w < 0. For example, for 0 < w < 1, what is the event {W > w} in (X,Y) space?

RGV
 
  • #3
Thank you for the reply, although I am not sure I understand your suggestions. I thought the general strategy to these types of problems was to find the cdf and differentiate. In this way, I don't know how P(W>w) can be of particular use. Are you suggesting a different approach? I tried taking the double integral of W<=w for each case (quadrant), but it seems like since the function is symmetric, it would either evaluate to 0 or (taking the integral of |W| when y<0), just 2...

*Small note: my original calculation was also a bit incorrect, since I need to break up the integral into two components, since the inequality flips when y is negative--although I run into similar limit problems there.
 
  • #4
obesogen said:
Thank you for the reply, although I am not sure I understand your suggestions. I thought the general strategy to these types of problems was to find the cdf and differentiate. In this way, I don't know how P(W>w) can be of particular use. Are you suggesting a different approach? I tried taking the double integral of W<=w for each case (quadrant), but it seems like since the function is symmetric, it would either evaluate to 0 or (taking the integral of |W| when y<0), just 2...

*Small note: my original calculation was also a bit incorrect, since I need to break up the integral into two components, since the inequality flips when y is negative--although I run into similar limit problems there.

G(w) = Pr(W > w) = 1 - F(w) = 1 - P(W <= w), so the density f(w) = dF/dw = -dG/dw. That is used in lots of places, and you should get familiar with it.

RGV
 
Last edited:
  • #5
Ok, that makes sense, but I don't see how it helps my integral problem, since I still have to compute essentially the same integral. Also, I realized that the reason I was having a lot of trouble was that log|x| actually cannot be integrated using those bounds.
 
  • #6
obesogen said:
Ok, that makes sense, but I don't see how it helps my integral problem, since I still have to compute essentially the same integral. Also, I realized that the reason I was having a lot of trouble was that log|x| actually cannot be integrated using those bounds.

Well, the suggestion I made helped ME a lot; the integration regions are easier, etc. However, if you don't care to do that, use whatever method you want---just be really careful about the integration limits.

As you say, log |x| cannot be integrated directly, but it is a piecewise-smooth function what can be integrated with no problem within the two separate regions x < 0 and x > 0. That's all you need.

RGV
 
  • #7
I must still be missing something here. Here's what I'm getting for 0<w<1, for example. Thanks for your patience.

[tex]
G(w)=P(XY>w)=\int P(Xy>w|Y=y)f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_0^1 P(X>w/y)f(y)dy+\int_{-1}^0 P(X<w/y)f(y)dy \\
=\int_0^1 \left(1-\frac{w/y+1}{2}\right)*\frac{1}{2}+\int_{-1}^{0}\frac{w/y+1}{2}f(y)dy \\
=1/4\int_0^1 dy-1/4 \int_0^1 w/y dy +1/2\int_{-1}^{0}w/y dy + 1/4 \int_{-1}^{0}dy \\
= \frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{4}\int_0^1\frac{w}{y}dy+\frac{1}{4}\int_{-1}^{0}\frac{w}{y}dy \\
[/tex]

Also, I misspoke in my last comment about integrating ln|x|. I actually meant integrating 1/x, as you can see above.
 
  • #8
obesogen said:
I must still be missing something here. Here's what I'm getting for 0<w<1, for example. Thanks for your patience.

[tex]
G(w)=P(XY>w)=\int P(Xy>w|Y=y)f_Y(y)dy \\
=\int_0^1 P(X>w/y)f(y)dy+\int_{-1}^0 P(X<w/y)f(y)dy \\
=\int_0^1 \left(1-\frac{w/y+1}{2}\right)*\frac{1}{2}+\int_{-1}^{0}\frac{w/y+1}{2}f(y)dy \\
=1/4\int_0^1 dy-1/4 \int_0^1 w/y dy +1/2\int_{-1}^{0}w/y dy + 1/4 \int_{-1}^{0}dy \\
= \frac{1}{2}-\frac{1}{4}\int_0^1\frac{w}{y}dy+\frac{1}{4}\int_{-1}^{0}\frac{w}{y}dy \\
[/tex]

Also, I misspoke in my last comment about integrating ln|x|. I actually meant integrating 1/x, as you can see above.

That seems complicated to me. For 0 < w < 1 the region {X*Y>w} consists of two right-triangular shapes (with a curved hypotenuse), one with its right angle at the top right and one with its right angle at the bottom left of the square [-1,1]^2. The two areas are equal, and the probability is the sum of the areas divided by the normalization factor 4, So, the probability is
[tex] P(W > w) = 2 \frac{1}{4} \int_{x=w}^1 \int_{y=w/x}^1 dy \, dx
= \frac{1}{2} \int_{w}^1 \left(1-\frac{w}{x}\right) \,dx = \frac{1}{2} \left[ 1-w +w \ln(w) \right].[/tex]
For -1 < w < 0, P(W < w) is the same as P(W > |w|); just look at the geometric figures involved.

RGV
 
  • #9
Ah, now I understand the use of 1-F(w), etc. A very useful trick, indeed. Thanks a lot, this was very helpful.
 

1. What is the formula for calculating the density of product of two uniform random variables?

The formula for calculating the density of product of two uniform random variables is f(x) = 1/|x|, where x is the product of the two random variables.

2. How is the density of product of two uniform random variables affected by the range of the variables?

The density of product of two uniform random variables is not affected by the range of the variables, as long as they are both within the specified range of the uniform distribution (i.e. between 0 and 1).

3. Can the density of product of two uniform random variables ever be negative?

No, the density of product of two uniform random variables can never be negative as it represents the likelihood of a certain value occurring and probabilities cannot be negative.

4. How does the density of product of two uniform random variables differ from the density of a single uniform random variable?

The density of product of two uniform random variables is not a uniform distribution like a single uniform random variable. Instead, it follows a triangular distribution, with its peak at 1 and its minimum value at 0.

5. Are there any real-world applications for understanding the density of product of two uniform random variables?

Understanding the density of product of two uniform random variables is useful in various fields, such as finance, engineering, and physics. It can be used to model the behavior of systems with multiple independent factors, such as stock prices or the strength of materials.

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