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would it be correct to say that the derivative of a definite integral F(x) is f(x) because as dx approaches zero in (x + dx), the width of ALL "imaginary rectangles" would closely resemble a line segment which approximates f(x)? therefore change in area under a curve is dependent to the change in the height of f(x) with respect to dx(which is inifinitesimally small)??

the different notations used in several videos i watched seemed to have confused me or doubt my own understanding of a seemingly simple concept