Derivative of a function of a lorentz scalar

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Discussion Overview

The discussion revolves around the derivative of a function of the momentum squared, specifically the formula relating the derivative with respect to momentum squared to second derivatives with respect to momentum components. Participants explore the validity of this formula in the context of particle physics and its implications for integrals and divergences in quantum field theory.

Discussion Character

  • Debate/contested
  • Technical explanation
  • Mathematical reasoning

Main Points Raised

  • One participant questions the validity of the formula, suggesting it only holds for the identity function f(p^2) = p^2 and may not be applicable to all functions of momentum squared.
  • Another participant points out the unusual nature of equating a first derivative to a second derivative, implying it may represent a differential equation with limited solutions.
  • A participant references two sources that utilize the formula, discussing its application in vacuum bubble expansions and self-energy calculations in phi^4 theory, indicating that the formula is critical for deriving certain results.
  • One participant highlights the importance of evaluating derivatives at a specific point, p^2 = μ^2, suggesting that this condition may affect the validity of the formula.

Areas of Agreement / Disagreement

Participants express differing views on the validity of the formula, with some questioning its general applicability while others reference its use in established literature. No consensus is reached regarding its correctness or applicability to various functions.

Contextual Notes

The discussion involves assumptions about the nature of the functions being differentiated and the specific conditions under which the formula may hold. There are unresolved questions regarding the implications of the formula for different types of divergences in quantum field theory.

RedX
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This is probably a dumb question, but I have a book that claims that if you have a function of the momentum squared, f(p2), that:

[tex]\frac{d}{dp^2}f=\frac{1}{2d}\frac{\partial }{\partial p_\mu} <br /> \frac{\partial }{\partial p^\mu}f[/tex]

where the d in the denominator is the number of spacetime dimensions, so for 4-space the numerical factor would be 1/8.

But this seems to only be true if your function is the identity [itex]f(p^2)=p^2[/itex], and doesn't hold for all functions f(p^2).

So is the book wrong?
 
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That is a bit of a strange formula, since it sets a first derivative equal to a second derivative. I suppose it's technically a differential equation, in which case it would not be surprising to find it has only a few linearly-independent solutions.

Using the chain rule, one can write

[tex]\frac{d}{d(p^2)} = \Big( \frac{\partial (p^2)}{\partial p^\mu} \Big)^{-1} \frac{\partial}{\partial p^\mu} = \Big( \frac{\partial (p^\nu p_\nu)}{\partial p^\mu} \Big)^{-1} \frac{\partial}{\partial p^\mu} = \frac{1}{2 p_\mu} \frac{\partial}{\partial p^\mu}[/tex]

which does not agree with the formula you gave.
 
Normally I would just dismiss the formula, but I found it in two different sources (both particle physics sources though). One book talked about the vacuum bubble expansion of the integral:

[tex]\int \frac{1}{[k^2-m^2][(k-p)^2-m^2]}=\int \frac{1}{[k^2-m^2]^2}<br /> -\int \frac{p^2}{[k^2-m^2]^3}<br /> +\frac{4}{d}\int \frac{k^2p^2}{[k^2-m^2]^4}+O[(p^2)^2][/tex]

where the integrals are over k, and p is an external momentum. I can only get the RHS assuming that the formula for the derivative works, where I just Taylor expand the LHS about p^2=0 (I just set p=0 after taking derivatives of the LHS, since p=0 satisfies p^2=0).

The other book was a well regarded book long ago, Gauge Theory of Elementary Particle Physics by Cheng and Li, where they write the self-energy of a scalar in phi^4 theory as:

[tex]\Sigma(p^2)=\Sigma(\mu^2)+\Sigma'(\mu^2)(p^2-\mu^2)+\tilde{\Sigma}(p^2)[/tex]

Cheng and Li claim that the first term on the RHS is quadratically divergent, and that the second term is logarithmically divergent rather than linear divergent, because

[itex]\Sigma'(\mu^2)[/itex] can be written in the form [itex]\frac{1}{8}<br /> \frac{\partial}{\partial p_\nu}\frac{\partial}{\partial p^\nu}\Sigma(p^2)|_{p^2=\mu^2}[/itex], and each differentiation with respect to external momentum [itex]p_\mu[/itex] reduces the degree of divergence of the integral by one (so one derivative takes it from quadratic divergence to linear divergence, and the other from linear to logarithmic).
 
The

[tex]\left. \phantom{\frac12} \right|_{p^2 = \mu^2}[/tex]

part might be important. That's all I can think of at the moment.
 

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