Derivative using the definition

Click For Summary

Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around using the definition of the derivative to demonstrate that the function f(x) = 1 + cos(πx/2) is differentiable at x = 2. Participants are exploring the limit process involved in calculating the derivative.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Mathematical reasoning, Assumption checking

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants are attempting to apply the limit definition of the derivative, with some expressing confusion about specific steps and the manipulation of trigonometric identities. Questions arise regarding the correctness of expressions and the handling of terms involving π.

Discussion Status

There is an ongoing exchange of ideas, with some participants providing guidance on using trigonometric identities and discussing the implications of their calculations. While some express uncertainty about their progress, others confirm the validity of certain steps, indicating a collaborative effort to clarify the problem.

Contextual Notes

Participants are working under the constraints of a homework assignment, which may limit the information they can share or the methods they can use. There are mentions of LaTeX formatting issues and the need for clarity in mathematical expressions.

Flappy
Messages
25
Reaction score
0

Homework Statement



Use the definition of the derivative to show f is differentiable at x = 2.

f(x) = 1 + cos(pix/2)

The Attempt at a Solution



I started getting the solution but got stuck at one part.

f`(x) = lim h->0 | [ f(x+h) - f(x) ] / (h)

= lim h->0 | [f(2+h) - f(2) ] / (h)

= lim h -> 0 | [1 + cos(pi(2+h)/2) - 0 ] / (h)

= lim h -> 0 | [1 + cos(2pi+hpi)/2 ] / (h)

I know I am supposed to get the h's to cancel out but I am having trouble getting there
 
Last edited:
Physics news on Phys.org
f(x)=1+\cos\left(\frac{\pi x}{2}\right)

\lim_{h\rightarrow0}=\frac{f(2+h)-f(2)}{h}

\lim_{h\rightarrow0}=\frac{1+\cos\left[\frac{\pi}{2}(2+h)\right]-(1+\cos \pi)}{h}

\lim_{h\rightarrow0}=\frac{1+\cos\left({\pi+\frac{\pi h}{2}}\right)}{h}

\cos{(x+y)}=\cos x\cos y-\sin x\sin y

\lim_{h\rightarrow0}=\frac{1-cos\left(\frac{\pi h}{2}\right)}{h}\cdot\frac{1+cos\left(\frac{\pi h}{2}\right)}{1+cos\left(\frac{\pi h}{2}\right)}

*Difference of Squares

\lim_{h\rightarrow0}=\frac{\sin{\left(\frac{\pi h}{2}\right)}}{h}\cdot\frac{\sin{\left(\frac{\pi h}{2}\right)}}{1+cos\left(\frac{\pi h}{2}\right)}\cdot\frac{\frac{\pi}{2}}{\frac{\pi}{2}}

Still typing, comp freezes! Refresh every minute if you want.
 
Last edited:
Is it, pi/2 or just pi? Reading your last 2 lines, there is a discrepancy.
 
Oh, I might have mislead with the argument inside cos. It's

f(x)=1+\cos\left(\frac{\pi(x)}{2}\right)
 
So what I have so far is good?
 
Yeah, I see what you did. I was a little confused at first. I forgot to add the 2 under the division on my last 2 lines. Thank you for taking the time by the way.
 
Hey hold on, my friend needs help with graphing (she's a girl, so :p) But hmm ... basically my LaTeX image isn't showing up. What you want to do is, use a trig identity ... 1-cos^2 x = sin^2 x. Use the fact that sinx\x = 1. So your angle is pi*h/2, so what will you need to do? Think back! I think it will work, I haven't finished working the problem. Been having to type the LaTeX, lol.
 
Dam, this problem is just nasty.

Practicing latex here. this is after you multiply by the conjugate right?

\lim_{h\rightarrow0}= \frac{1 - cos(\frac{{\pi}h}{2})^2}{h(1+cos(\frac{{\pi}h}{2})}
 
Lol, yes. Damn I can't get it to work. There is an easier way. You just got to be neat about it yanno. If you want to make a complex fraction. Put ...

\frac{a}{b}

Then to the side

a=\frac{c}{d}
b=\frac{e}{f}

Then just replace by copy paste :p But obviously I haven't learned my lesson ... argh. And you don't need the brackets if it's just one letter.

\frac a b works great!
 
Last edited:
  • #10
I don't know if I'm on the right track with the problem b/c when I differentiate it doesn't match the definition. I will get 0 by using the definition ... hmm. But of course, we evaluated at 2!
 
Last edited:
  • #11
WOOHOO! It's right, lol. Forgot we evaluated at 2 :p

I was like ... wtf I typed all that up for nothing! Damn I suck.
 
  • #12
I believe you are supposed to get 0. Unless I am not following you. I did the derivative using rules and ended up getting 0.

Doing the derivative I got -sin\frac{{\pi}x}{2} * \frac{{\pi}}{2}

Then by plugging in 2 you would get 0 * pi/2 which is 0.
 
  • #13
I'm done typing it up, whew! Btw, there should be a negative somewhere ... not sure where it went, since the derivative of cosx is -sinx. It would be counted wrong even though we get the right answer yanno. Just letting you know. Maybe it disappeared since we evaluated at 2 from the get go :p
 
Last edited:
  • #14
Just a question, where did the pi/2 multiplication come from?
 
  • #15
Flappy said:
Just a question, where did the pi/2 multiplication come from?
What is the limit of ... \lim_{h\rightarrow0}\frac{\sin{\left(\frac{\pi h}{2}\right)}}{h} ? Definitely not 1 since it's not \lim_{h\rightarrow0}\frac{\sin x}{x}=1

So I have to multiply both numerator and denominator by pi/2, which is implied multiplication of 1. Basically, the angle and the denominator must be the same!
 
Last edited:
  • #16
I see, i see. Well, thank you for all the help, appreciated.
 
  • #17
Flappy said:
I see, i see. Well, thank you for all the help, appreciated.
Anytime :) If you want help like this again, make sure to show work :-] Only reason why I tried my best since I know you tried! Have fun, Calculus gets better.
 

Similar threads

  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 3 ·
Replies
3
Views
2K
  • · Replies 4 ·
Replies
4
Views
1K
  • · Replies 20 ·
Replies
20
Views
3K
  • · Replies 2 ·
Replies
2
Views
2K
  • · Replies 6 ·
Replies
6
Views
2K
  • · Replies 8 ·
Replies
8
Views
2K
  • · Replies 7 ·
Replies
7
Views
2K
  • · Replies 1 ·
Replies
1
Views
2K
  • · Replies 10 ·
Replies
10
Views
2K