Where Did I Go Wrong in Deriving Tensor Component Derivatives?

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The discussion focuses on the derivation of tensor component derivatives, specifically the expression involving the derivative of the inverse of the momentum operator, \(\not{p}\). The user attempts to apply the Leibniz rule but is unsure where the mistake lies in their calculations. They derive an expression that simplifies to \(\gamma^\mu \frac{1}{\not{p}^2}\) but seek clarification on the steps taken. The request for hints suggests a need for deeper understanding of tensor calculus and the application of derivative rules in this context. Overall, the inquiry highlights common challenges in tensor analysis and the importance of precise mathematical manipulation.
RicardoMP
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Homework Statement
I want to prove that [tex] -\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}\frac{1}{\not{p}}=\frac{1}{\not{p}}\gamma^\mu \frac{1}{\not{p}}[/tex]
Relevant Equations
[tex] \not{p}=\gamma^\mu p_\mu[/tex]
This was my attempt at a solution and was wondering where did I go wrong: -\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}\frac{1}{\not{p}}=-\frac{\partial}{\partial p_\mu}[\gamma^\nu p_\nu]^{-1}=\gamma^\nu\frac{\partial p_\nu}{\partial p_\mu}[\gamma^\sigma p_\sigma]^{-2}=\gamma^\nu\delta^\nu_\mu\frac{1}{\not{p}^2}=\gamma^\mu\frac{1}{\not{p}^2}
Any hint would be great! Thank you!
 
Physics news on Phys.org
Apply the Leibniz rule to \left( \frac{\partial}{\partial p_{\mu}} \frac{1}{\not\! p} \right) \not \! p \ .
 

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