Determine the Lagrangian for the particle moving in this 3-D cos^2 well

Lambda96
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Hi,

I am not quite sure whether I have solved the following problem correctly:

Bildschirmfoto 2023-02-12 um 15.00.55.png

I have now set up Lagrangian in general, i.e.

$$L=T-V=\frac{1}{2}m(\dot{x}^2+\dot{y}^2)-mgz$$

After that I imagined how ##x##,##y## and ##z## must look like and got the following:

$$x=\beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \cos(\theta)$$
$$y=\beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \sin(\theta)$$
$$z=\beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$Then I determined ##\dot{x}## and ##\dot{y}## or rather ##\dot{x}^2## and ##\dot{x}^2##.

$$\dot{x}=-\dot{\theta} \beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \sin(\theta) , \quad \dot{x}^2=\dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r) \sin^2(\theta)$$
$$\dot{y}=\dot{\theta} \beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \cos(\theta) , \quad \dot{y}^2=\dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r) \cos^2(\theta)$$

Then I put everything into the Lagrangian

$$L=\frac{1}{2}m\Bigl[ \dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r) \sin^2(\theta) +\dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r) \cos^2(\theta) \Bigr]-mg\beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$

$$L=\frac{1}{2}m\dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r)-mg\beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$

Unfortunately, however, my Lagrangian now depends on ##r## and ##\dot{theta}## and not ##r## and ##\theta##.
 
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I don't understand, how you came to your equations for ##x## and ##y##. Think again about, how to parametrize ##(x,y,z)## as a function of the better adapted generalized independent variables ##r## and ##\theta##!
 
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First you are definitely missing a ##\dot{z}^2## term in your Kinetic Energy.

Now think cylindrical coordinates.

Isn't ## r = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2}##?

What are ##x## and ##y## in cylindrical coordinates?

Also I think you interpreted the last sentence wrong

"Determine the Lagrangian in terms of ##r## and ##\theta##" to me does not imply that ##\dot{r}## and ##\dot{\theta}## can't be present.
 
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Lambda96 said:
$$x=\beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \cos(\theta)$$

$$\dot{x}=-\dot{\theta} \beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \sin(\theta) $$
Even if ##x## were computed correctly. Computing ##\dot{x}## requires not just the chain rule but the product rule as well. Same goes for ##y##.

Your coordinates are both ##r## and ##\theta##. Take that into account.
 
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Thank you vanhees71 and PhDeezNutz for your help.

Unfortunately I completely misunderstood the task, I thought that the particle m would stay on this circular path, but the particle is supposed to move completely over the surface of this, I'll call it funnel, so ##r## does not stay constant, but depends on time.

For the z coordinate I can use the formula given, i.e. ##z=\beta \cos(\alpha r)^2## for the ##x## and ##y## I would use polar coordinates, as PhDeezNutz has already pointed out. So I would get the following for the ##x, y, z## and their time derivatives

$$x=r \cos(\theta) , \qquad \dot{x}=\dot{r} \cos(\theta)-r \dot{\theta} \sin{\theta} , \qquad \dot{x}^2=\dot{r}^2 \cos^2(\theta)-2 \dot{r} r \dot{\theta} \sin(\theta) \cos(\theta)+r^2 \dot{\theta}^2 \sin^2{\theta}$$
$$y=r \sin(\theta) , \qquad \dot{y}=\dot{r} \sin(\theta)+r \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} , \qquad \dot{y}^2=\dot{r}^2 \sin^2(\theta)+2 \dot{r} r \dot{\theta} \cos(\theta) \sin(\theta)+r^2 \dot{\theta}^2 \cos^2{\theta}$$
$$z= \beta \cos^2(\alpha r) , \qquad \dot{z}=-2 \beta \alpha \dot{r} \sin(\alpha r) \cos(\alpha r), \qquad \dot{z}=4 \beta^2 \alpha^2 \dot{r}^2 \sin^2(\alpha r) \cos(\alpha r)^2$$

I then substituted these values into the Lagrangian and got the following:

$$L= \frac{1}{2}m \Bigl\lbrack \dot{r}^2 + r^2 \dot{\theta}^2+4 \beta^2 \alpha^2 \dot{r}^2 \sin^2(\alpha r) \cos^2(\alpha r) \Bigr\rbrack -mg \beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$

Then I used the following identity for ##\dot{z}^2## ##\sin^2(x) \cos^2(x)=\frac{1}{4} \sin^2(2x)## and get the following form:

$$L= \frac{1}{2}m \Bigl\lbrack \dot{r}^2 + r^2 \dot{\theta}^2+ \beta^2 \alpha^2 \dot{r}^2 \sin^2(2 \alpha r) \Bigr\rbrack -mg \beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$
 
Looks good to me.
 
Thank you all for your help 👍
 
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