Determine the Lagrangian for the particle moving in this 3-D cos^2 well

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around determining the Lagrangian for a particle moving in a three-dimensional cos² potential well. Participants explore the formulation of the Lagrangian using generalized coordinates, specifically focusing on the relationships between the coordinates and their time derivatives.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Conceptual clarification, Mathematical reasoning, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the setup of the Lagrangian, questioning the parametrization of coordinates and the inclusion of kinetic energy terms. There is a focus on the correct use of cylindrical coordinates and the implications of the particle's motion over the surface rather than along a fixed circular path.

Discussion Status

Some participants have provided guidance on the correct formulation of the coordinates and their derivatives. There is acknowledgment of misunderstandings regarding the problem's requirements, and a revised approach has been suggested that incorporates time-dependent variables.

Contextual Notes

Participants note the importance of considering the particle's movement across the surface of the potential well, which affects the relationships between the coordinates and their derivatives. There is also mention of specific identities used to simplify expressions within the Lagrangian.

Lambda96
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Homework Statement
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Hi,

I am not quite sure whether I have solved the following problem correctly:

Bildschirmfoto 2023-02-12 um 15.00.55.png

I have now set up Lagrangian in general, i.e.

$$L=T-V=\frac{1}{2}m(\dot{x}^2+\dot{y}^2)-mgz$$

After that I imagined how ##x##,##y## and ##z## must look like and got the following:

$$x=\beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \cos(\theta)$$
$$y=\beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \sin(\theta)$$
$$z=\beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$Then I determined ##\dot{x}## and ##\dot{y}## or rather ##\dot{x}^2## and ##\dot{x}^2##.

$$\dot{x}=-\dot{\theta} \beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \sin(\theta) , \quad \dot{x}^2=\dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r) \sin^2(\theta)$$
$$\dot{y}=\dot{\theta} \beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \cos(\theta) , \quad \dot{y}^2=\dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r) \cos^2(\theta)$$

Then I put everything into the Lagrangian

$$L=\frac{1}{2}m\Bigl[ \dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r) \sin^2(\theta) +\dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r) \cos^2(\theta) \Bigr]-mg\beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$

$$L=\frac{1}{2}m\dot{\theta}^2 \beta^2 \cos^4(\alpha r)-mg\beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$

Unfortunately, however, my Lagrangian now depends on ##r## and ##\dot{theta}## and not ##r## and ##\theta##.
 
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I don't understand, how you came to your equations for ##x## and ##y##. Think again about, how to parametrize ##(x,y,z)## as a function of the better adapted generalized independent variables ##r## and ##\theta##!
 
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First you are definitely missing a ##\dot{z}^2## term in your Kinetic Energy.

Now think cylindrical coordinates.

Isn't ## r = \sqrt{x^2 + y^2}##?

What are ##x## and ##y## in cylindrical coordinates?

Also I think you interpreted the last sentence wrong

"Determine the Lagrangian in terms of ##r## and ##\theta##" to me does not imply that ##\dot{r}## and ##\dot{\theta}## can't be present.
 
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Lambda96 said:
$$x=\beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \cos(\theta)$$

$$\dot{x}=-\dot{\theta} \beta \cos^2(\alpha r) \sin(\theta) $$
Even if ##x## were computed correctly. Computing ##\dot{x}## requires not just the chain rule but the product rule as well. Same goes for ##y##.

Your coordinates are both ##r## and ##\theta##. Take that into account.
 
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Thank you vanhees71 and PhDeezNutz for your help.

Unfortunately I completely misunderstood the task, I thought that the particle m would stay on this circular path, but the particle is supposed to move completely over the surface of this, I'll call it funnel, so ##r## does not stay constant, but depends on time.

For the z coordinate I can use the formula given, i.e. ##z=\beta \cos(\alpha r)^2## for the ##x## and ##y## I would use polar coordinates, as PhDeezNutz has already pointed out. So I would get the following for the ##x, y, z## and their time derivatives

$$x=r \cos(\theta) , \qquad \dot{x}=\dot{r} \cos(\theta)-r \dot{\theta} \sin{\theta} , \qquad \dot{x}^2=\dot{r}^2 \cos^2(\theta)-2 \dot{r} r \dot{\theta} \sin(\theta) \cos(\theta)+r^2 \dot{\theta}^2 \sin^2{\theta}$$
$$y=r \sin(\theta) , \qquad \dot{y}=\dot{r} \sin(\theta)+r \dot{\theta} \cos{\theta} , \qquad \dot{y}^2=\dot{r}^2 \sin^2(\theta)+2 \dot{r} r \dot{\theta} \cos(\theta) \sin(\theta)+r^2 \dot{\theta}^2 \cos^2{\theta}$$
$$z= \beta \cos^2(\alpha r) , \qquad \dot{z}=-2 \beta \alpha \dot{r} \sin(\alpha r) \cos(\alpha r), \qquad \dot{z}=4 \beta^2 \alpha^2 \dot{r}^2 \sin^2(\alpha r) \cos(\alpha r)^2$$

I then substituted these values into the Lagrangian and got the following:

$$L= \frac{1}{2}m \Bigl\lbrack \dot{r}^2 + r^2 \dot{\theta}^2+4 \beta^2 \alpha^2 \dot{r}^2 \sin^2(\alpha r) \cos^2(\alpha r) \Bigr\rbrack -mg \beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$

Then I used the following identity for ##\dot{z}^2## ##\sin^2(x) \cos^2(x)=\frac{1}{4} \sin^2(2x)## and get the following form:

$$L= \frac{1}{2}m \Bigl\lbrack \dot{r}^2 + r^2 \dot{\theta}^2+ \beta^2 \alpha^2 \dot{r}^2 \sin^2(2 \alpha r) \Bigr\rbrack -mg \beta \cos^2(\alpha r)$$
 
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Looks good to me.
 
Thank you all for your help 👍
 
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