Determining if the functions {cosx , e^-x , x} are linearly independent

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SUMMARY

The discussion centers on determining the linear independence of the functions {cos(x), e^(-x), x} over the interval (-∞, ∞) using the Wronskian. The Wronskian was computed as [(-e^(-x))(cos(x))] + [(xe^(-x))(-sin(x))] - [(x)(-e^(-x))(cos(x))] - [(e^(-x))(cos(x))]. After evaluating the Wronskian at x = π/2, it was established that the Wronskian evaluates to -(\pi/2)e^(-π/2), confirming that the functions are linearly independent since the Wronskian is never zero.

PREREQUISITES
  • Understanding of linear independence in the context of functions
  • Familiarity with the Wronskian determinant
  • Basic calculus, including differentiation
  • Knowledge of exponential and trigonometric functions
NEXT STEPS
  • Study the properties of the Wronskian in detail
  • Explore linear independence of functions in different intervals
  • Learn about applications of the Wronskian in differential equations
  • Investigate other methods for determining linear independence of functions
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Students studying calculus, particularly those focusing on differential equations and linear algebra, as well as educators teaching these concepts.

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Homework Statement


Basically, the title says it all, I need to figure out whether these functions are linearly independtend on (-infinity, infinity)


Homework Equations



Wronskian (the determinant of the matrix composed of the functions in the first row, first derivative in the second row and second derivatives in the third row)


The Attempt at a Solution



After computing the Wronskian this is what I got:
[(-e^-x)(-cosx)] + [(xe^-x)(-sinx)] - [(x)(-e^-x)(cosx)] - [(e^-x)(cosx)]

however, I cannot seem to simply this. If anyone can help me simplify this further that would be great. Also if you help me determine if whether they are linearly independent.

Thanks
 
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Okay, you have calculated the Wronskian. Why? What does the Wronskian tell you? Would it help you to observe that, if x= \pi/2, that reduces to -(\pi/2)e^{-\pi/2}?
 
basically the wronskian tells us that if it is not equal to zero the specified functions are linearly independent.

After evaluating what you told me to substitute in, I get

(-1/2)(e^(-pi/2))(pi)

With this, the wronskian can never equal to zero due to the function of e.

Is this correct?
 

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