Determining the coefficient of viscosity of water (Graph Problem)

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Homework Help Overview

The discussion revolves around an experiment aimed at determining the coefficient of viscosity for water using capillary flow. Participants are analyzing a graph of flow rate (Q) against height (h), which is expected to be linear and pass through the origin. However, the original poster notes that their graph does not pass through the origin, raising questions about the implications for their viscosity calculations.

Discussion Character

  • Exploratory, Assumption checking, Problem interpretation

Approaches and Questions Raised

  • Participants discuss the implications of the graph not passing through the origin and question how this affects the calculated coefficient of viscosity. There are requests for data and calculations to better understand the discrepancies. Some participants suggest examining the curve fit and the potential effects of experimental errors.

Discussion Status

The discussion is ongoing, with participants providing feedback on calculations and suggesting areas for further investigation. There is a recognition of the challenges in achieving accurate results and the potential for experimental errors affecting the outcomes.

Contextual Notes

Participants mention the need for better techniques to reduce data scatter and consider the hydrodynamic entrance effect as a possible factor in the results. There is also a note about the sensitivity of certain parameters in the relevant equations, which may impact the viscosity calculations.

WhiteWolf98
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Homework Statement


So, the question is based around an experiment to determine the coefficient of viscosity for water (by capillary flow).
Part of the experiment involved producing a graph of Q against h. This graph is supposed to be linear, and is supposed to pass through the origin.
As can be the seen in the equation, the gradient of the graph is supposed to be used in the calculation. The problem is my graph doesn't go through the origin, so I was wondering what to do about it. Thanks

Homework Equations


η=ρgπr^4/8l*1/slope

The Attempt at a Solution

 
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WhiteWolf98 said:
my graph doesn't go through the origin
Can you post the data in cut-and-pastable form? Failing that, can you post the graph?
 
IMG_20180405_132604.jpg


The Results

e8709124e4fff0bb036b77d7516a1256.png


The Graph

2c1fb590a8442ed690feedacca2af115.png
 

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I plotted the data of h vs Q, and did a straight line fit to the data. It seems to me the straight line fit passes very close to the origin.
 
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Oh yeah, well, it cuts the y-axis at 8×10^-7. It is very, very close, but I was wondering if that had any effect on the value I obtain for the coefficient of viscosity because the value I calculated was very far off from the actual value
 
WhiteWolf98 said:
Oh yeah, well, it cuts the y-axis at 8×10^-7. It is very, very close, but I was wondering if that had any effect on the value I obtain for the coefficient of viscosity because the value I calculated was very far off from the actual value
You didn't really expect it to pass exactly through the origin, did you.

Let's see your calculation.
 
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Uhm, maybe I did, oops. Ehehe

Calculation:
ρ=10^3
g=9.81
r=0.65×10^-3
L=15.5×10^-2

Hence, overall calculation is:

η=[(10^3×9.81×π×(0.65×10^-3)^4)/8(15.5×10^-2)]×1/1×10^-7=0.0444 Pa⋅s (to 3 s.f.)
 
From your data, I get a viscosity of 0.0018 Pa.s
 
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Could you show me the calculation please?
 
  • #10
It looks like your curve fit is way off. I get a curve fit of: ##y=-2.38\times 10^{-8}+2.233\times 10^{-6}x##
 
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  • #11
WhiteWolf98 said:
it cuts the y-axis at 8×10^-7
It cuts the y-axis of the graph you posted at that value, but that axis is not at x=0.
 
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  • #12
Chestermiller said:
It looks like your curve fit is way off. I get a curve fit of: ##y=-2.38\times 10^{-8}+2.233\times 10^{-6}x##
Edit: I agree.
 
  • #13
Alrighty! So first of all, apologies for the late reply. I took your points into consideration, and decided just to draw the graph by hand. Using that graph, I managed to obtain a value for the coefficient of viscosity as ##2.06 × 10^{-3} Pa⋅s##. The actual value is ##8.90 × 10^{−4} Pa·s## according to this source. That's still over a 100% percentage error though; is that really the best I can do? Thank you all for your help!
 
  • #14
WhiteWolf98 said:
Alrighty! So first of all, apologies for the late reply. I took your points into consideration, and decided just to draw the graph by hand. Using that graph, I managed to obtain a value for the coefficient of viscosity as ##2.06 × 10^{-3} Pa⋅s##. The actual value is ##8.90 × 10^{−4} Pa·s## according to this source. That's still over a 100% percentage error though; is that really the best I can do? Thank you all for your help!
It's hard to say without seeing in person the actual experimental procedure being performed, and the apparatus. There are other things you might look at like the hydrodynamic entrance effect (probably not important). This could be ascertained by varying the length of the tube. Also, there seems to be a lot of scatter in the data, and this might be improved by better technique.
 
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  • #15
Chestermiller said:
It's hard to say without seeing in person the actual experimental procedure being performed, and the apparatus. There are other things you might look at like the hydrodynamic entrance effect (probably not important). This could be ascertained by varying the length of the tube. Also, there seems to be a lot of scatter in the data, and this might be improved by better technique.

Understood, guess that's finally sorted; and somehow, my line of best fit for my hand-drawn graph went exactly through the origin. Thank you Chestermiller, and everyone else for your input in solving this. Have a good day
 
  • #16
WhiteWolf98 said:
Understood, guess that's finally sorted; and somehow, my line of best fit for my hand-drawn graph went exactly through the origin. Thank you Chestermiller, and everyone else for your input in solving this. Have a good day

I would be suspicious of a best-fit-line that goes exactly through the origin. The chance of that happening is essentially zero, because there are always experimental errors (random or otherwlse) in any real experiment, and that will almost always give you a line that does not pass exactly through (0,0). However, if the errors are truly random (and "statistically independent) there are statistical tests you can perform to check if the true (unknown and unobservable) intercept could really be zero. That is different saying that any particular best-fit-line goes through (0,0).
 
  • #17
WhiteWolf98 said:
That's still over a 100% percentage error though
Take a look at your relevant equation. Can you see a parameter to which the result will be highly sensitive? How accurately is that parameter known in your experiment?
 

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