Differential vs. Derivative of a multivariable function

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AxiomOfChoice
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Consider a (possibly complex-valued) function [itex]F(z) = F(x,y)[/itex] of two variables. Can it make sense to talk about the differential [itex]dF[/itex] of this function without it having a derivative [itex]dF/dz[/itex]? Or must [itex]F[/itex] be differentiable before we can even start talking about [itex]dF[/itex]?
 
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Yes, F must be "differentiable" in order to have a "differential"!
 
Mh, why is that?

I thought that by definition, dF is the formal expression

[tex]dF=\frac{\partial F}{\partial x}dx+\frac{\partial F}{\partial y}dy[/tex]

So existence of partial derivatives is sufficient to make sense of dF.
 
quasar987 said:
Mh, why is that?

I thought that by definition, dF is the formal expression

[tex]dF=\frac{\partial F}{\partial x}dx+\frac{\partial F}{\partial y}dy[/tex]

So existence of partial derivatives is sufficient to make sense of dF.

This is precisely what I thought! We only need the partials to exist to make sense out of [itex]dF[/itex]. But as we all know, the existence of partials is insufficient to guarantee differentiability.
 
Well, you can write
[tex]df= \frac{\partial f}{\partial x}dx+ \frac{\partial f}{\partial y}[/tex]
as long as the partial derivatives exist but to what point? None of the properties of a differential work unless f is differentiable.