- #1

- 95

- 0

∫(1 - a(cosh(x))

^{-2})

^{1/2}dx = ∫(1/cosh(x)) (1 - a(cosh(x))

^{2})

^{1/2}dx

where a is a positive constant. I've tried everything I can think of to no avail, the answer on wolfram isn't pretty but it seems like if I can figure out what process to use I could reach it eventually. I asked the professor and he suggested Leibnitz rule, but not sure how differentiation under the integral sign would help here.