paweld
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Chemical potential of a substance i in an ideal solution is given by:
[tex]\mu_i = \mu_i^0 + RT \log x_i[/tex]
(where [tex]\mu_i^0[/tex] is a chemical potential of pure substance i and
[tex]x_i[/tex] is mole fraction of i)
In nonideal solution [tex]x_i[/tex] has to be exchanged with activity coefficient [tex]a_i[/tex]:
[tex]\mu_i = \mu_i^0 + RT \log a_i[/tex]
We can write [tex]a_i = \gamma_i x_i[/tex]. My question is why [tex]\gamma_i[/tex] always
tends to some constants (which not depend of temperature and preassure and is
typically equall 1) when [tex]x_i[/tex] tends to 1. Is it possible to prove it without usage of
statistical mechanics apparatus. It means that dillute solution of any substance is always almost ideal.
[tex]\mu_i = \mu_i^0 + RT \log x_i[/tex]
(where [tex]\mu_i^0[/tex] is a chemical potential of pure substance i and
[tex]x_i[/tex] is mole fraction of i)
In nonideal solution [tex]x_i[/tex] has to be exchanged with activity coefficient [tex]a_i[/tex]:
[tex]\mu_i = \mu_i^0 + RT \log a_i[/tex]
We can write [tex]a_i = \gamma_i x_i[/tex]. My question is why [tex]\gamma_i[/tex] always
tends to some constants (which not depend of temperature and preassure and is
typically equall 1) when [tex]x_i[/tex] tends to 1. Is it possible to prove it without usage of
statistical mechanics apparatus. It means that dillute solution of any substance is always almost ideal.